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Free Russian hamradio said special for radiofanats from CIS Search engine on electronic circuits and hamradio programs in www powered with knowledge base Сайт радиолюбителей и электронщиков Информация для радиолюбителей Схемы антенны софт мониторы справочник фотогалерея усилитель ссылки куплю продам мануалы книги russian hamradio qsl qsl card amateur radio ham amateur callsignскачать компьютер бесплатно антенный усилитель видеокамеры софт телевизоры схема монитор справочник фотогалерея радиотелефоны Senao описание радиотелефоны Free Russian hamradio said special for radiofanats from CIS Search engine on electronic circuits and hamradio programs in www powered with knowledge base Сайт радиолюбителей и электронщиков Информация для радиолюбителей Схемы антенны софт мониторы справочник фотогалерея усилитель ссылки куплю продам мануалы книги |
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Naval Combat Pack Download pc game download and Install Instructions : Download the Naval Combat Pack Download pc game download file Click the setup file if prompted and the online launcher will automatically download Naval Combat Pack Download pc game download on your computer Product Description Platform: PC Download From the Manufacturer 3 Award Winning Classics: 688I Hunter/Killer Fleet Command Sub Command: Akula Seawolf 688I 688I Hunter/Killer 688I Hunter/Killer the most realistic submarine simulation ever developed for PC Master the sonar and weapons control systems learn to develop real target situations and outfit your boat with the latest advanced weaponry Then use your skills to complete the tour of duty and earn your dolphins to become a true submariner Fleet Command International waterways become theaters of war when the world’s most formidable maritime powers exchange their fatal blows With entire fleets at your command you must strategically deploy vessels from every class – frigate to aircraft to nuclear submarine – to maintain the precarious balance of naval power and gain position for the deadly endgame Sub Command Take charge of the most deadly modern-day submarines in the world – three distinct submarines across two unique and challenging campaigns Utilize cutting-edge sensor and weapon technology to locate track and destroy the enemy – even deliver Tomahawk missiles to inland targets Whether transiting diving or surfacing you control the smartest stealthiest and most feared subs on the water today! FEATURES 688I Hunter/Killer A truly authentic simulation: Developed by Sonalysts a defense contractor who designs submarine simulators for the US Navy Over 12 detailed operating stations: Control all aspects of submarine warfare including the sonar suite fire control helm and target motion analysis Real-World Terrain: Ocean depth and water density for the entire globe are based on actual satellite topographical data Real-life situations: Conduct detailed training and single missions plus a full campaign based on political analysis from real world situations Multiplayer Warfare: Seek and Destroy up to 8 players over the internet or LAN Full 3D Technology: Full 3D technology allows for multiple camera views and accurate 3D models of over 20 different naval weapons platforms Complete Control: Manage all of the resources of your submarine including crewmen training and weapons load-outs Fleet Command Campaigns and mission scenarios straight from current headlines Exclusive real-time strategy with cuttingedge real-world weapons Intuitive point and click game play No need to memorize symbols or complex commands Player designed task forces Complete 3D environment rotates and zooms for intense combat action Effects modeled in stunning detail- time of day clouds rain differing sea states ships wake and pyrotechnics Sub Command Three submarines to command – Seawolf 688I and Akula Each contains authentic naval systems including Sonar Radar and Target Motion Analysis Test your skills while firing Tomahawk missiles rescuing crippled subs rising through the polar ice cap to communicate information and much more Easy to use game interface – With straightforward controls and automated crewmen controlling a submarine has never been easier Enhanced sound and 3D graphics engine 3D Objects over 250 from Russian trawlers to Frances Mirage fighters plus exacting sound modes pull you in like never before You won’t just hear the torpedos you will feel them System Requirements Minimum Specifications: OS: Windows 2000 / Windows XP Processor: Pentium III RAM: 256 MB Hard Drive: 15 GB Video Card: 32MB video card Nvidia Geforce or ATI Radeon Additional Info: Unknown |
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სოციალური ქსელების რუსულ სეგმენტში საქართველოს მხარდასაჭერად კამპანია „Russians Love Sakartvelo“ დაიწყო |
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– Chennakesava Templea protected heritage site by Archaeological Survey of India and amongst the finest examples of Hoysala architecture – Māru-Gurjara temple architecture originated somewhere in the 6th century in and around areas of Rajasthan Māru-Gurjara architecture show the deep understanding of structures and refined skills of Rajasthani craftmen of bygone era Māru-Gurjara architecture has two prominent styles: Maha-Maru and Maru-Gurjara – There is a connecting link between Māru-Gurjara architecture and Hoysala temple architecture In both of these styles architecture is treated sculpturally — Nagda temple an example of Māru-Gurjara architecture – Carved elephants on the walls of Jagdish Temple Udaipur 1651 CE an example of Māru-Gurjara architecture FRAMED FROM LAXMIKANT-INDIAN POLITY Q166 The relative precedence of the Private Members’ Bill in a particular category is determined byA The SpeakerB The Deputy SpeakerC The Committee on Private Members’ BillD BallotAns DA private member’s bill in a parliamentary system of government is a bill proposed law introduced into a legislature by a legislator who is not acting on behalf of the executive branch A private member is any member of parliament MP who is not a member of the cabinet executiveFRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12thQ165 With reference to the ancient period which among the following is/are correctly matched 1 Auqaf – Charitable trusts2 Inam – Tax free land3 Sama – immediate requirements such as food clothes living quarters and ritual necessitiesWhich among the above is/are correct A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 123D Only 2Ans CFRAMED FROM BIPIN CHANDRAQ164 In 1936 Congress declared the Ethiopian day With reference to this consider the following statements :1 Congress declared the Ethiopian people’s struggle to be part of all exploited people’s struggle for freedom2 There was a schism in the congress for the support of Spanish republicans3 Demonstrations and meetings were held all over India expressing sympathy and solidarity with the EthiopiansSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:A Only 2B 2 amp 3C Only 3 D 1 amp 3Ans DWhen Ethiopia was attacked by fascist Italy in early 1936the Congress declared the Ethiopian people’s struggle to be partof all exploited people’s struggle for freedom The Congressdeclared 9 May to be Ethiopia Day on which demonstrations andmeetings were held all over India expressing sympathy andsolidarity with the Ethiopians On his way back from EuropeJawaharlal refused to meet Mussolini despite his repeatedinvitations lest the meeting was used for fascist propagandaThe Congress expressed strong support for SpanishRepublicans engaged in a life and death struggle with fascistFranco in the Spanish Civil War In his presidential address tothe Faizpur Congress in December 1936 Nehru emphasized thatthe struggle going on in Spain was not merely betweenRepublicans and Franco or even Fascism and democracy butbetween forces of progress and reaction throughout the worldThe Congress Working Committeemeeting in Nehru’s absence passed a resolution viewing ‘withgrave concern the unabashed attempt that is being made byGermany to deprive Czechoslovakia of its independence or toreduce it to impotence’ and sending its ‘profound sympathy tothe brave people of Czechoslovakia” FRAMED FROM enchanted learning comQ163 With reference to the report of first national commission of labour consider the following statements :1 The first National Commission on Labour was set up under the leadership of Dr BR Ambedkar2 It provided detailed examination of all aspects of labour problems in unorganised sector only3 Important recommendations of the Labour Commission have been implemented through amendments to certain labour lawsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:A Only 1B 2 amp 3C Only 3 D 1 amp 3Ans C-The first National Commission on Labour was set up on 24th December 1966 under the Chairmanship of Justice PB Gajendragadkar -The Commission submitted its report in August 1969 after detailed examination of all aspects of labour problems both in the organised and unorganised sectors -The recommendations covered issues like recruitment agencies and practices -employment service administration training and workers education working conditions labour welfare housing social security wages and earnings wage policy bonus workers/employers organisations industrial relations machinery etc- Important recommendations of the Labour Commission have been implemented through amendments to certain labour laws like the Workmen’s Compensation Act 1923 for removal of wage ceiling for coverage the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 mainly in respect of the unfair labour practices The Employees State Insurance Act 1948 enhancement in the wage limit for exemption from payment of Employees’ Contribution Factories Act 1948FRAMED FROM enchanted learning comQ162 With reference to the Temperate rainforests consider the following statements :1These are found in a belt around the equator of the Earth2 They are less abundant than tropical rainforests3 Temperate rainforests have soil that is richer in nutrients relatively young and less prone to damageSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:A Only 1B 2 amp 3C Only 3D 123Ans B- Temperate rainforests are found along the Pacific coast of the USA and Canada from northern California to Alaska in New Zealand Tasmania Chile Ireland Scotland and Norway They are less abundant than tropical rainforests– Temperate rainforests have soil that is richer in nutrients relatively young and less prone to damageFRAMED FROM wikipediaQ161 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Yuva Yojana consider the following statements:1 It is a centrally sponsored scheme 2 The scheme has been launched by the Ministry of youth affairs amp sports3 It provides easy access to information mentor network incubator credit and accelerator to create a pathway for the youthSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans AThe scheme has been launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and EntrepreneurshipFRAMED FROM enchanted learning comQ160 Which among the following foods were originally from rainforests around the world 1 Cashewnuts2 Brazil nuts3 Starchy root4 Macadamia nutsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:A Only 1 amp 3B 234C Only 3D 1234Ans DFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ159 With reference to the common reporting standard consider the following statements :1 It is an agreement to share information on residents’ assets and incomes automatically in conformation with the standard2 It is supposed to transfer all the relevant information automatically and systematically3 It includes all 34 OECD countriesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C Only 1D 123Ans DThe Common Reporting Standard CRS formally referred to as the Standard for Automatic Exchange of Financial Account Information is an information standard for the automatic exchange of information AEoI developed in the context of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development OECD The legal basis for exchange of data is the Convention on Mutual Administrative Assistance in Tax Matters and the idea is based on the USA Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act FATCA implementation agreementsOn May 6 2014 forty-seven countries tentatively agreed on a common reporting standard: an agreement to share information on residents’ assets and incomes automatically in conformation with the standardThis agreement is informally referred to as GATCA the global version of FATCA but CRS is not just an extension of FATCAEndorsing countries included all 34 OECD countries as well as Argentina Brazil China Colombia Costa Rica India Indonesia Latvia Lithuania Malaysia Saudi Arabia Singapore and South AfricaChinaincluding Hong Kong and more than 80 other countries have agreed to become signatoriesFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ158 What is a Green Box subsidy1 These include direct payments to farmers to limit production and certain government assistance to encourage agriculture and rural development in developing countries2 These include government policies of Minimum support Prices MSP for agricultural products or any help directly related to production quantities for eg power fertiliser seeds pesticides irrigationetc3 These include amounts spent on research disease control infrastructure and food securitySelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3 B Only 3C 1 amp 2 D 123Ans BGreen Box subsidies include amounts spent on research disease control infrastructure and food security These also include direct payments made to farmers such as income support that do notstimulate production These are not considered trade distorting and are encouragedFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ157 Who among the following are the members of the BIMSTEC 1 Bangladesh2 Myanmar3 India4 Sri Lanka5 ThailandSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1345B 1245C Only 124D 12345Ans DOther members of BIMSTEC Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation :MyanmarNepal BhutanResolution by BIMSTEC members :• Enhance cooperation in environmental protection and sustainable development • Enhance cooperation in the field of agriculture including crops livestock and horticulture besides fisheries • Finalize an agreement on trade in goods by 2014 with intent to promote regional commerce • Conclude the Agreement on Services and InvestmentsFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ156 Who among the following are the members of the Financial Stability and Development Council FSDC 1 Finance minister2 Prime Minister3 Governor of statesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 1 amp 2C 123D Only 1Ans D Chairperson : The Union Finance Minister of IndiaOther Members: Governor Reserve Bank of India RBl Finance Secretary and/ or Secretary Department of Economic Affairs DEA Secretary Department of Financial Services DFS Chief Economic Advisor Ministry of Finance Chairman Securities and Exchange Board of India SEBI Chairman Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority IRDA Chairman Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority PFRDA Joint Secretary Capital Markets DEA will be the Secretary of the CouncilFinancial Stability and Development Council FSDC: Apex-level body constituted by government of India Idea to constitute such a super regulatory body was first given by Raghuram Rajan Committee in 2008FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ155 Who among the following are the members of North Atlantic Treaty Organization NATO 1 UK2 USA3 Germany4 France5 IcelandSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 124B 1233C 125D All are the membersAns DNATO is an intergovernmental military alliance based on the North Atlantic Treaty signed on 4 April 1949 The organization comprises a system of collective defence through which its member states accord to mutual defense in response to an attack by any external threatBaltic States or countries are 3 northern European countries east of the Baltic Sea – Estonia Latvia and Lithuania which attained independence from the Russian Empire in the backwash of World War I In the period between the World Wars the Baltic States also included FinlandFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ154 Who among the following are the members of the Boao Forum for Asia BFA 1 China2 India3 FICCI Federation of Indian Chambers of CommerceSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123AnsAA non-governmental and non-profit international organization with a fixed conference date and a fixed domicile BFA was officially introduced on February 27 2001 Since 2002 BFA has been having its yearly conference at Boao Hainan Province China which now serves as the permanent site of BFA Headquarters Each year world’s Top political and business leaders gather at Boao to brain storm on global political and economic issuesObjectives :To base itself on Asia and encourage and deepen the economic exchange coordination and cooperation within Asia and between Asia and other parts of the world To offer a high-end dialog platform for governments enterprises experts and scholars to collectively talk about economy society and environment and other pertinent subject mattersFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ153 Who among the following are not the members of the Arab League 1 Chad 2 Israel3 South Sudan4 Libya5 OmanSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 345B Only 1 amp 2C 125D All are the members Ans BThe Arab League was founded in Cairo in 1945 by Egypt Iraq Lebanon Saudi Arabia Syria Transjordan Jordan from 1946 and Yemen North Yemen later combined Yemen There was a continual increase in membership during the second half of the 20th century with additional 15 Arab states and 4 observers being admittedFRAMED FROM CCRTgovin Q152 In context with the Manipuri dance which among the following are correct 1 Pure dance sequences performed in the Rasleela dances follow the specific rhythmic patterns and body movements2 The Ras costume consists of a richly embroidered stiff skirt which extends to the feet3 Male dancers play the Pung and Kartal while dancing4 The Pung and Kartal choloms are performed at all social and religious festivals5 The dancers do not wear ankle bells to stamp out the rhythms in a theatrical displaySelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1345B 2345C 1234D 12345Ans DFRAMED FROM CCRTgovin Q151 With reference to the Kuchipudi which among the following statements are correct 1 In this dancer usually stands on a brass plate locking the feet in shakatavadanam paada and moves the plate rhythmically with great dexterity2 Techniques like dancing on the rim of a brass plate and with a pitcher full of water on the head was introduced3 Acrobatic dancing became part of the repertoireSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans DFRAMED FROM CCRTgovin Q150 In context with the Odissi dance which among the following are correct 1 Torso movement is an unique feature of the Odissi style2 Lower half of the body remaining static the torso moves from one side to the other along the axis passing through the centre of the upper half of the body3 There are certain foot positions with flat toe or heel contact4 In addition to the leg movement there are a variety of gaits for doing pirouettesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 134B 234C 123D 1234Ans DFRAMED FROM CCRTgovin Q149 Which among the following are correct with reference to the Western Indian School 1 The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism 2 exaggeration of certain physical traits are present in Western Indian School3 Figures are flat with angularity of features in this type of artSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans D |
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First Russian then English |
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23 января в Красноярске стартовал этап V Регионального чемпионата Красноярского края «Молодые профессионалы WorldSkills Russia» 2018 Студенты нашего техникума участвуют в соревнованиях по строительным компетенциям |
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North Indian temples are referred to as Nagara style of temple architecture They have sanctum sanctorum where the deity is present open on one side from where the devotee obtains darśana There may or may not be many more surrounding corridors halls etc However there will be space for devotees to go around the temple in clockwise fashion circumambulation In North Indian temples the tallest towers are built over the sanctum sanctorum in which the deity is installed The north India Nagara style of temple designs often deploy fractal-theme where smaller parts of the temple are themselves images or geometric re-arrangement of the large temple a concept found in French and Russian architecture such as the matryoshka principle One difference is the scope and cardinality where Hindu temple structures deploy this principle in every dimension with garbhgriya as the primary locus and each pada as well as zones serving as additional centers of loci This makes a Nagara Hindu temple architecture symbolically a perennial expression of movement and time of centrifugal growth fused with the idea of unity in everything TRIBHANGA It is the standing body position or stance used in the traditional Indian sculpture art and Indian classical dance forms like the Odissi Tribhanga literally meaning three parts break consists of three bends in the body at the neck waist and knee hence the body is oppositely curved at waist and neck which gives it a gentle S shape and is considered the most graceful and sensual of the Odissi positions It has been closely associated with the Hindu deity Krishna who is often portrayed in this posture It is characterized by various Bhangas or stance which involves stamping of the foot and striking various postures as seen in Indian sculptures they are four in number namely Bhanga Abanga Atibhanga and Tribhanga being the most common of all Q134 Chinook is :A Warm amp dry wind on the eastern slopes of the rockiesB Violent amp extremely cold wind of the TundrasC Extremely cold wind in central SiberiaD Dry amp dusty wind off the west coast of Africa blowing from the deserts Ans A Chinook means the ‘snow-eater’This is the hot and dry wind blowing along the eastern slope of the Rockies and covers an area from the southern part of Colorado in the south to British Columbia in Canada in the North The Chinook is a föhn wind a rain shadow wind which results from the subsequent adiabatic warming of air which has dropped most of its moisture on windward slopes orographic lift As a consequence of the different adiabatic rates of moist and dry air the air on the leeward slopes becomes warmer than equivalent elevations on the windward slopes As moist winds from the Pacific also called Chinooks are forced to rise over the mountains the moisture in the air is condensed and falls out as precipitation while the air cools at the moist adiabatic rate of 5 °C/1000 m 35 °F/1000 ft Plants can be visibly brought out of dormancy by persistent Chinook winds or have their hardiness reduced even if they appear to be remaining dormant Q133 Consider the following statements :1 Kandariya Mahadeo is the name of a famous temple built during the period of Gupta dominance in Central India2 The Martand temple in Kashmir was built during the reign of Lalitaditya MuktapidaWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns B Kandariya Mahadeo is the name of a famous temple built during the period of Chandela rulers The Martand temple was built on top of a plateau from where one can view whole of the Kashmir Valley From the ruins and related archaeological findings it can be said it was an excellent specimen of Kashmiri architecture which had blended the Gandharan Gupta Chinese Roman Syrian-Byzantine and Greek forms of architecture The temple has a colonnaded courtyard with its primary shrine in its center and surrounded by 84 smaller shrines stretching to be 220 feet long and 142 feet broad total and incorporating a smaller temple that was previously built The temple turns out to be the largest example of a peristyle in Kashmir and is complex due to its various chambers that are proportional in size and aligned with the overall perimeter of the temple In accordance with Hindu temple architecture the primary entrance to the temple is situated in the western side of the quadrangle and is the same width as the temple itself creating grandeur The entrance is highly reflective of the temple as a whole due to its elaborate decoration and allusion to the deities worshiped inside The primary shrine is located in a centralized structure the temple proper that is thought to have had a pyramidal top – a common feature of the temples in Kashmir Various wall carvings in the antechamber of the temple proper depict other gods such as Vishnu and river goddesses such as Ganga and Yamuna in addition to the sun-god Surya FRAMED FROM THE HINDU-EDITORIAL Q132 Recently Zealandia has been given the status of a continent Which among the following habitable areas fall under zealandia 1 New Zealand2 New Caledonia3 Norfolk Island4 Lord Howe Island GroupSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 1C 123D All are correctAns DIt is located on the southwest Pacific Ocean mostly surrounding in what is the current land mass of New Zealand and its adjoining islandsZealandia has recently been given the status of a continent by several geologists who say that the long lost continent is submerged under water While there is no formal recognition of the same by the New Zealand government which is the major habitable administration on Zealandia there is however wide interest in the media about the continentQ131 Consider the following statements :1 Borobudur is a world renowned Buddhist monument of Cambodia2 Angkor wat is a well known Buddhist temple complex located in IndonesiaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:A Only 1B Only 2C Both 1 amp 2D Neither 1 amp 2Ans DBorobodur is a 9th-century Mahayana Buddhist Temple in Magelang Central Java Indonesia Angkor Wat is a temple complex in Cambodia and the largest religious monument in the world It was originally constructed as a Hindu temple for the Khmer Empire gradually transforming into a Buddhist temple toward the end of the 12th century It was built by the Khmer King Suryavarman IIQ130 Subsistence amp commercial freshwater fisheries are well developed in south eastern Asia It is because of1 Low precipitation2 Large perennial streams3 Dense populationSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:A Only 2B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 3D 123Ans BQ129 The total number of members in the legislative council of a state shall not exceed :A One-fourth of the total members in the legislative assemblyB Two-third of the total members in the legislative assemblyC Half of the total members in the legislative assemblyD One third of the total members in the legislative assembly Ans DQ128 The three movements of Gandhi were named as Non-Cooperation movement Civil disobedience movement amp Quit India movement because1 Gandhi wanted to attract the Indian masses to his movements by giving it a different name each time2 When a movement failed he did not want to use the same name for his new movement 3 Each movement was more rigorous than the previous one4 Gandhi prepared the masses slowly from non-cooperating in 1921 to telling the British to quit India in 1942Which of the above statements is/are correct A 1234B 2 amp 3C 124D 3 amp 4Ans DFRAMED FROM publicwmoint World Meteorological OrganisationQ127 Recently WMO has signified which among the following effects of Ei-Nino in its report 1 Ei Nino event has been successful in triggering the CO2 level resulting in warming influence2 El Niño event had triggered droughts in tropical amp temperate regions 3 Capacity of “sinks” to absorb co2 has been reduced Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 3D 123Ans CEl Niño event had triggered drought in tropical regionWMO is an intergovernmental organization and specialised agency of the UN for meteorology weather and climate operational hydrology and related geophysical sciences It is a member of the United Nations Development Group“sinks” includes like forests vegetationFRAMED FROM Wikipedia Q126 Living Planet Report is the world’s leading science-based analysis on the health of planet With reference to this report consider the following statements :1 Ecological footprint calculation is the only basis for the publication of this report2 It is published every year by the World Wide Fund for Nature Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D The Living Planet Report is published every two years by the World Wide Fund for Nature since 1998 It is based on the Living Planet Index and ecological footprint calculations The Living Planet Report is the world’s leading science-based analysis on the health of our only planet and the impact of human activity Humanity’s demands exceed the Earth’s capacity to sustain us The latest edition of the Living Planet Report was released in October 2016 FRAMED FROM Wikepedia Q125 The survey of India works under which of the following ministries of the government of India A Minister of DefenceB Ministry of Home AffairsC Ministry of Science amp TechnologyD Ministry of Tourism amp CultureAnsCFRAMED FROM Laxmikant-Indian polityQ124 Zero Hour in the Indian Parliament starts atA First hour of the sittingB Last hour of the sittingC 1200 noonD No fixed timingsAns CQuestion Hour: The first hour of every sitting of Parliament is generally reserved for the asking and answering of questionsZero Hour: The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as Zero Hour It starts at around 12 noon hence the name and members can with prior notice to the Speaker raise issues of importance during this time Typically discussions on important Bills the Budget and other issues of national importance take place from 2pm onwardsFRAMED FROM THE HINDU amp WIKEPEDIAQ123 In context with the gravitation waves consider the following statements :1 They generally propagate as waves greater than the speed of light 2 Enigmaic sources are the strongest sources of the gravitational wavesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns BThey are among enigmatic objects in our universe like black holes supernova neutron stars and Big BangThey travel outward from the source at the speed of lightFRAMED FROM THE HINDU amp WIKEPEDIAQ122 Who among the following publishes Global Youth Development Index A Commonwealth SecretariatB World Economic ForumC Security CouncilD Global InnovationAns AIndia has been ranked 133rd out of 183 countries in the 2016 Global Youth Development Index YDI compiled by the Commonwealth Secretariat The Global Youth Development Index report measures countries’ prospects for young people in employment education health civic and political spheresFRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12thQ121 With reference to the Vijayanagar empire which among the following is/are correctly matched 1 Samara – Battle or war2Yavana – Greeks and other peoples who entered the subcontinent from the north west3 Kuddirai Chettis – Local communities of merchants Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 123D Only 2Ans C The amara-nayaka system was a major political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire It is likely that many features of this system were derived from the iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate The amara-nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the raya They collected taxes and other dues from peasants craftspersons and traders in the area They retained part of the revenue for personal use and for maintaining a stipulated contingent of horses and elephants These contingents provided the Vijayanagara kings with an effective fighting force with which they brought the entire southern peninsula under their control Some of the revenue was also used for the maintenance of temples and irrigation works FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12thQ120 Which among the following were the observations regarding the physical layout of the Vijayanagar empire 1 Embankments were built along these streams to create reservoirs of varying sizes2 Fortifications encircled only the city but not its agricultural hinterland and forests 3 No mortar or cementing agent was employed anywhere in the constructionSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 123D Only 2Ans A Additional points : The stone blocks were wedge shaped which held them in place and the inner portion of the walls was of earth packed with rubble Square or rectangular bastions projected outwards Abdur Razzaq noted that “ between the first second and the third walls there are cultivated fields gardens and houses FRAMED FROM THE HINDU amp WIKEPEDIA Q119 With reference to the LIDAR Light Detection amp ranging consider the following statements :1 LIDAR uses ultraviolet amp visible light only to detect the objects 2 They can target a wide range of materials except non-metallic objects Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D Lidar uses ultraviolet visible or near infrared light to image objects It can target a wide range of materials including non-metallic objects rocks rain chemical compounds aerosols clouds and even single moleculesA narrow laser-beam can map physical features with very high resolutions for example an aircraft can map terrain at 30-centimetre 12 in resolution or better Lidar has been used extensively for atmospheric research and meteorology Lidar instruments fitted to aircraft and satellites carry out surveying and mapping – a recent example being the US Geological Survey Experimental Advanced Airborne Research LidarNASA has identified lidar as a key technology for enabling autonomous precision safe landing of future robotic and crewed lunar-landing vehicles Wavelengths vary to suit the target: from about 10 micrometers to the UV approximately 250 nm Typically light is reflected via backscattering Different types of scattering are used for different lidar applications: most commonly Rayleigh scattering Mie scattering Raman scattering and fluorescence Based on different kinds of backscattering the lidar can be accordingly called Rayleigh Lidar Mie Lidar Raman Lidar Na/Fe/K Fluorescence Lidar and so on Suitable combinations of wavelengths can allow for remote mapping of atmospheric contents by identifying wavelength-dependent changes in the intensity of the returned signal In general there are two kinds of lidar detection schemes: incoherent or direct energy detection which is principally an amplitude measurement and coherent detection which is best for Doppler or phase sensitive measurements Coherent systems generally use optical heterodyne detection which being more sensitive than direct detection allows them to operate at a much lower power but at the expense of more complex transceiver requirements Lidar is popularly used to make high-resolution maps with applications in geodesy geomatics archaeology geography geology geomorphology seismology forestry atmospheric physics laser guidance airborne laser swath mapping ALSM and laser altimetry Lidar sometimes is called laser scanning and 3D scanning with terrestrial airborne and mobile applications FRAMED FROM THE HINDU amp WIKEPEDIA Q118 With reference to the fast neutron reactor consider the following statements:1 In this nuclear fission amp fusion chain reaction is sustained by fast neutrons2 Neutron moderators are employed in these type of reactors Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D A fast neutron reactor or simply a fast reactor is a category of nuclear reactor in which the fission chain reaction is sustained by fast neutrons Such a reactor needs no neutron moderator but must use fuel that is relatively rich in fissile material when compared to that required for a thermal reactor Natural uranium consists mostly of three isotopes U-238 U-235 and trace quantities of U-234 a decay product of U-238 U-238 accounts for roughly 993 of natural uranium and undergoes fission only by neutrons with energies of 5 MeV or greater the so-called fast neutrons About 07 of natural uranium is U-235 which undergoes fission by neutrons of any energy but particularly by lower energy neutrons When either of these isotopes undergoes fission they release neutrons around 1 to 2 MeV too low to cause fission in U-238 and too high to do so easily in U-235 The common solution to this problem is to slow the neutron from these fast speeds using a neutron moderator any substance which interacts with the neutrons and slows their speed The most common moderator is normal water which slows the neutrons through inelastic scattering until the neutrons reach thermal equilibrium with the water Fast neutron reactors can reduce the total radiotoxicity of nuclear waste and dramatically reduce the waste’s lifetime6 They can also use all or almost all of the fuel in the waste Fast neutrons have an advantage in the transmutation of nuclear waste With fast neutrons the ratio between splitting and the capture of neutrons of plutonium or minor actinide is often larger than when the neutrons are slower at thermal or near-thermal epithermal speeds The transmuted odd-numbered actinides eg from Pu-240 to Pu-241 split more easily Fast reactors technically solve the fuel shortage argument against uranium-fueled reactors without assuming unexplored reserves or extraction from dilute sources such as ordinary granite or the ocean Sodium is often used as a coolant in fast reactors because it does not moderate neutron speeds much and has a high heat capacity However it burns and foams in air It has caused difficulties in reactors Since liquid metals have low moderating power and ratio and no other moderator is present the primary interaction of neutrons with liquid metal coolants is the ngamma reaction which induces radioactivity in the coolant Water the most common coolant in thermal reactors is generally not a feasible coolant for a fast reactor because it acts as a neutron moderator However the Generation IV reactor known as the supercritical water reactor with decreased coolant density may reach a hard enough neutron spectrum to be considered a fast reactor All current fast reactors are liquid metal cooled reactors The early Clementine reactor used mercury coolant and plutonium metal fuel Sodium-potassium alloy NaK coolant is popular in test reactors due to its low melting point In practice sustaining a fission chain reaction with fast neutrons means using relatively highly enriched uranium or plutonium most fast neutron reactors have used either MOX mixed oxide or metal alloy fuel Like thermal reactors fast neutron reactors are controlled by keeping the criticality of the reactor reliant on delayed neutrons with gross control from neutron-absorbing control rods or blades – Doppler broadening in the moderator which affects thermal neutrons does not work nor does a negative void coefficient of the moderator Both techniques are very common in ordinary light water reactors Q117 India is a member of:1 Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation APEC2 Asian Development Bank ADB3 Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development OECD4World Trade Organization WTOSelect the correct answer using the code given below:A 1 and 3 onlyB 2 and 4C 23 and 4D 123 and 4Ans BQ116 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana consider the following statements :1 Farmers will pay uniform premium of 2 per cent for all Kharif crops and 15 percent for all Rabi crops2 provision of capping the premium rate has been removed 3 Encouragement of use of technology such as use of smart phones amp remote sensing satellite Which among the above is/are correct A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans DThe new Crop Insurance Scheme has been formulated in line with One Nation–One Scheme theme It replaces existing two schemes viz National Agricultural Insurance Scheme MNAIS and Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme MNAIS by removing their inherent drawbacks shortcomingsThere will be no upper limit subsidy given by Government even if balance premium is 90 percentFRAMED FROM THE HINDU amp WIKEPEDIA Q115 A geographical indication is used for products that have a specific geographical origin GI is governed by which of the following legal authorities :1 WTO2 TRIPS3 Food amp agriculture organizationSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 3B 2 amp 3C Only 1 amp 2D All are correctAns C A geographical indication GI is a name or sign used on certain products which corresponds to a specific geographical location or origin eg a town region or country The GI tag is an indication which is definite to a geographical territory It is used for agricultural natural and manufactured goods For a product to get GI tag the goods need to be produced or processed or prepared in that region It is also essential that the product has special quality or reputation FRAMED FROM THE HINDU amp WIKEPEDIA Q114 With reference to the National Innovation Fund consider the following statements :1 It is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology2 It provides institutional support for scaling up the grassroots innovations across the country3 NIF is mandated to build a national register of traditional knowledge practices related to agriculture plants animal health and human healthSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B Only 1C 1 amp 3D 123Ans D National Innovation Foundation NIF – India is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology DST Government of India It was set up in February 2000 at Ahmedabad Gujarat to provide institutional support for scouting spawning sustaining and scaling up the grassroots innovations across the country NIF is a national initiative to serve the knowledge-rich economically poor people of the country It is committed to making India innovative by documenting adding value protecting the Intellectual Property Rights IPRs of the contemporary unaided technological innovators as well as of outstanding traditional knowledge holders and disseminating them on a commercial as well as non-commercial basis NIF conducts a biennial national competition for grassroots green technologies developed by farmers mechanics artisans and others through their own genius without any recourse to professional help NIF then gets these innovations validated with the help of experts and ascertains the novelty in these innovations by conducting Prior Art Search PAS If the innovation is deemed novel NIF files a patent on behalf of the innovator in his/her name NIF also funds value-addition initiatives in these innovations to upscale them and make them more useful for a larger segment of people Being organised since 2008 IGNITE is an annual competition for student’s ideas and innovations conducted by NIF in partnership with the Central Board of Secondary Education CBSE Some state education boards also partner in the same All students up to Standard 12 from any school and of the same age group but out of school in India are eligible to participate in the competition The IGNITE awards 3 are announced on October 15 the birthday of Bharat Ratna Dr A P J Abdul Kalam the former President of India which is celebrated as the Children’s Creativity and Innovation Day by NIF In 2015 IGNITE competition was renamed as Dr A P J Abdul Kalam IGNITE competition in the memory of Dr Kalam so that the creative children continue to draw inspiration from his spirit NIF is mandated to build a national register of ideas innovations and traditional knowledge TK practices related to agriculture plants animal health and human health With the help of the Honey Bee Network NIF has been able to scout and document over 225000 examples of technological ideas innovations and traditional practices4 Since its inception NIF has also recognised over 816 grassroots innovators young students and outstanding traditional knowledge holders in its various national awards providing them a platform to showcase their creativity5 Through the collaborations with various research and development RampD and academic institutions agricultural and veterinary universities and others NIF has helped in getting thousands of grassroots technologies validated and value-added It has also set up a Fabrication Laboratory Fab Lab with the help of Massachusetts Institute of Technology MIT Boston for product development apart from strengthening in-house research and development facilities for the initial validation of herbal technologies FRAMED FROM THE HINDU amp WIKEPEDIA Q113 Which among the following is/are the composition of the reconstituted Inter state Council 1 Chief Minister2 All the Union Ministers3 Prime MinisterSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 3B 1 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans B Only 6 Union Ministers are there The Inter-State Council is a constitutional body to facilitate coordination between states and the centre It is a recommendatory body to investigate and discuss subjects in which some or all of the states or the Central government have a common interest It is set up on the basis of provisions in Article 263 of the Constitution of India by a Presidential Order 1990 based on the recommendation of Sarkaria Commission Q112 In ancient India “ Gutika” meant :A CollegesB HospitalsC MountainsD ViharasAns BFRAMED FROM THE HINDU amp WIKEPEDIA Q111 Consider the differences between the recently discovered S-waves microseism amp P-waves microseism :1 S-waves microseism are bright as compared to the P-waves2 P wave microseisms can be detected easily during major hurricanesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns B S-waves microseism are faint as compared to the P-waves It will help experts learn more about the Earth’s inner structure and improve detection of earthquakes and oceanic storms Learning more about S waves microseismic will further aid to understand the deeper crust and upper mantle structure FRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY amp WIKEPEDIA Q110 Polymetallic nodules contains which among the following constituents :1 Nickel2 Copper3 Calcium4 Oxygen5 HydrogenSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 amp 2 B 1235C 123D All are correctAns D The chemical composition of nodules varies according to the kind of manganese minerals and the size and characteristics of the core Those of greatest economic interest contain manganese 27-30 nickel 125-15 copper 1-14 and cobalt 02-025 Other constituents include iron 6 silicon 5 and aluminium 3 with lesser amounts of calcium sodium magnesium potassium titanium and barium along with hydrogen and oxygen as well as water of crystallization and free water Polymetallic nodules also called manganese nodules are rock concretions on the sea bottom formed of concentric layers of iron and manganese hydroxides around a core The core may be microscopically small and is sometimes completely transformed into manganese minerals by crystallization When visible to the naked eye it can be a small test shell of a microfossil radiolarian or foraminifer a phosphatized shark tooth basalt debris or even fragments of earlier nodules FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q109 Global Gender Report is released by which of the following A World bankB World Trade Organisation C International Monetary Fund D World Economic ForumAns D The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum The 2016 report covers 144 major and emerging economies The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure gender equality The highest possible score is 1 equality or better for women except for lifespan 106 or better for women and the lowest possible score is 0 Data for some countries are unavailable FRAMED FROM LIVE MINT amp WIKEPEDIA Q108 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan consider the following statements :1 This scheme is applicable only to the women during their pregnancy period 2 Tests will take place at the government hospitals onlySelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D The scheme is applicable only to the women in their pregnancy period of 3 to 6 months Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan or Yojana is a new initiative of the Narendra Modi Government launched on June 9 2016 The scheme has been launched with the objective of boosting the health care facilities for the pregnant women especially the poor Under the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan the pregnant ladies will be given free health check-up and required treatment for free on 9th of every month The scheme will be applicable for pregnant women to avail in all Government hospitals across the country The scheme is applicable only for the pregnant women All kinds of medical checkups under this scheme will be completely free Tests will took place at the medical centers government and private hospitals and private clinics across the country FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q107 Recently which among the following state has adopted fly ash utilization policy A Maharashtra B PunjabC KarnatakaD Tamil NaduAns AFly ash is a fine glass powder by-product recovered from gases of burning coal in thermal power plants during production of electricity They are micron sized earth elements primarily consisting silica alumina and ironFly ash causes air pollution It can also contaminate water and soil systems The wet disposal of Fly ash results in leaching of toxic heavy metals in ground water systemFRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q106 Under IUCN Fishing cat has been classified under which category A EndangeredB VulnerableC ExtinctD Critically endangeredAns BThe fishing cat is broadly but discontinuously distributed in Asia and is primarily found in the Terai region of the Himalayan foothills in India and Nepal in eastern India Bangladesh and Sri Lanka There are no confirmed records from Peninsular Malaysia Vietnam and LaosIn India the presence of fishing cats has been documented in Ranthambhore Tiger Reserve in Sur Sarovar Bird Sanctuary outside protected areas in West Bengal in and around Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary in Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary and adjoining reserve forests in Andhra PradeshFRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY 2016-17 Q105 With reference to the Trans-Atlantic Trade and Investment Partnership TTIP consider the following statements :1It is a proposed trade agreement between the India and the United States with the aim of promoting trade and multilateral economic growth2 The reports on the TTIP proposals can be accessed only by authorised persons3 Creation of million of new jobs is one of the pillar of TTIPSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 3B 2 amp 3C Only 1 amp 2D All are correctAns B The Transatlantic Trade and Investment Partnership TTIP is a proposed trade agreement between the European Union and the United States with the aim of promoting trade and multilateral economic growth The American government considers the TTIP a companion agreement to the Trans-Pacific Partnership TPPThe agreement is under ongoing negotiations and its main three broad areas are: market access specific regulation and broader rules and principles and modes of co-operation TTIP aims to liberalise one-third of global trade and could create millions of new jobs FRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY 2016-17 Q104 With reference to the Unified payment interface consider the following statements :1 It is a payment system regulated by the National Payments Corporation of India2 It facilitates the fund transfer between two bank accounts on the mobile platform instantlySelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns B Unified Payments Interface UPI is a payment system launched by National Payments Corporation of India and regulated by Reserve Bank of India which facilitates the fund transfer between two bank accounts on the mobile platform instantly UPI Unified Payments Interface is an advanced version of Immediate Payment ServiceIMPS platform designed for transferring funds using: Transfer through Virtual Payment Address Unique ID provided by bank or Account Number IFSC or Mobile Number MMID or Aadhaar Number or Collect / Pull money basis Virtual ID An MPIN is given to the banking customer once they register for UPI which is required to be entered while confirming a money transfer FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th BIOQ103 DNA Index System DIS allows generation of DNA profiles from which of the following samples :1 Saliva2 Blood strains 3 Buccal SwabsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B 1 amp 3C 123D 1 amp 2Ans C DNA profiling also called DNA fingerprinting DNA testing or DNA typing is a forensic technique used to identify individuals by characteristics of their DNA A DNA profile is a small set of DNA variations that is very likely to be different in all unrelated individuals thereby being as unique to individuals as are fingerprints hence the alternate name for the technique DNA profiling should not be confused with full genome sequencing DNA fingerprinting has also been widely used in the study of animal and floral populations and has revolutionized the fields of zoology botany and agriculture A common method of collecting a reference sample is the use of a buccal swab which is easy non-invasive and cheap When this is not available eg because a court order is needed but not obtainable other methods may need to be used to collect a sample of blood saliva semen or other appropriate fluid or tissue from personal items eg a toothbrush razor or from stored samples eg banked sperm or biopsy tissue Samples obtained from blood relatives related by birth not marriage can provide an indication of an individual’s profile as could human remains that had been previously profiled Using PCR technology DNA analysis is widely applied to determine genetic family relationships such as paternity maternity siblingship and other kinships Familial DNA searching sometimes referred to as “Familial DNA” or “Familial DNA Database Searching” is the practice of creating new investigative leads in cases where DNA evidence found at the scene of a crime forensic profile strongly resembles that of an existing DNA profile offender profile in a state DNA database but there is not an exact match FRAMED FROM THE HINDUQ102 Recently India has signed Dollar credit line agreement with which of the following country A ChinaB NepalC PakistanD IranAns BFRAMED FROM THE HINDU amp WIKEPEDIAQ101 Recently Kigali agreement has amended 1987 montreal protocol With reference to this agreement consider the following statements 1 As per this agreement HFCs is the only gas responsible for global warming apart from other gases2 500 million us dollar is the amount of additional funding from developed countries 3 Kigali agreement will be binding on countries from 2019Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 3B 1 amp 2C Only 1D 2 amp 3Ans A Amended Montreal Protocol which was initially conceived only to plug gases that were destroying the ozone layer now includes HFCs responsible for global warming The exact amount of additional funding from developed countries will be agreed at the next Meeting of the Parties in Montreal in 2017 The Paris agreement which will come into force by 2020 is not legally binding on countries to cut their emissions The Kigali Amendment is considered absolutely vital for reaching the Paris Agreement target of keeping global temperature rise to below 2-degree Celsius compared to pre-industrial times FRAMED FROM THE HINDU amp WIKEPEDIAQ100 HIMANSH often in the news is :A Glaciological research stationB Submarine vesselC Micro satelliteD Nuclear VesselAns A A high altitude glaciological research station in Himalaya called Himansh meaning a slice of ice began functioning above 13500 ft 4000 m in a remote region in Spiti Himachal Pradesh The station houses instruments to quantify glacier melting and its relation to changing climate It will also serve as the base for Terrestrial Laser Scanners TLS and Unmanned Aerial Vehicles UAVs for undertaking surveys FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ99 How recently developed Zika replicon system will be helpful in developing vaccine for Zika virus 1 It will deteriorate the structure of the virus by deleting some of its genes 2 Replicons are the segments of viral genome that are dependent of the cellular chromosome3 They will be used to locate portions of the viral molecule that block or halt viral replicationSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 2B 2 amp 3C Only 1 amp 3D All are correctAns CReplicons are basically segments of viral genome that can replicate on their own independent of the cellular chromosomeIt has also become important to deal with Zika virus which is spreading rapidly and behaves differently than other viruses as it can be transmitted sexually and is associated with microcephaly and Guillain-Barre syndrome GBSFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ98 In context with the news what is Digishala A 24 hour government TV channel for cashless lessonsB TV series to be launched for cashless lessonsC A short film based on cashless lessonsD None of the above Ans AFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ97 Jaguar DARIN III often in the news is :A Twin seat aircraftB Anti tank missileC Rocket launcherD Submarine vesselAns AFRAMED FROM ECONOMIC SURVEY 2016-17Q96 Which among the following commodities are covered under the Baltic Dry index 1 Coal2 Grain3 Iron OreSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 3B 2 amp 3C Only 1 amp 2D All are correctAns D The Baltic Dry Index BDI is an economic indicator issued daily by the London-based Baltic Exchange Not restricted to Baltic Sea countries the index provides an assessment of the price of moving the major raw materials by sea Taking in 23 shipping routes measured on a timecharter basis the index covers Handysize Supramax Panamax and Capesize dry bulk carriers carrying a range of commodities including coal iron ore and grain Most directly the index measures the demand for shipping capacity versus the supply of dry bulk carriers The demand for shipping varies with the amount of cargo that is being traded or moved in various markets supply and demand – Another index the HARPEX focuses on containers freight It provides an insight on the transport of a much wider base of commercial goods than commodities alone HARPEX is regarded as a Current-Activity Indicator because it measures and charts the changes in freight rates for ‘container ships’ Container ships typically carry a wide variety of finished goods from a multitude of sellers These are factory output goods headed for retail markets at the other end of the supply chain FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ95 With reference to the Cocoas bonds sometimes seen in the news consider the following statements :1 These are the hybrid bonds that combine debt and equity elements2 These are considered as the most secured bonds issued by banks Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AThese are known as Additional Tier-1 bondsThey are the riskiest debt issued by banks and do not have any set maturity dateA contingent convertible bond CoCo also known as an enhanced capital note ECN is a fixed-income instrument that is convertible into equity if a pre-specified trigger event occursThe concept of CoCo has been particularly discussed in the context of crisis management in the banking industry It has been also emerging as an alternative way for keeping solvency in the insurance industryA contingent convertible bond is defined with two elements: the trigger and the conversion rate While the trigger is the pre-specified event causing the conversion process the conversion rate is the actual rate at which debt is swapped for equityThe trigger which can be bank specific systemic or dual has to be defined in a way ensuring automatic and inviolable conversionA possibility of a dynamic sequence exists—conversion occurs at different pre-specified thresholds of the trigger eventSince the trigger can be subject to accounting or market manipulation a commonly used measure has been the market’s measure of bank’s solvencyThe design of the trigger and the conversion rate are critical in the instrument’s effectivenessFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ94 What is Urja Ganga that has been recently in news A It is a mission to clean holy river by 2020B It is a project of Gas pipeline to provide cooking gasC It aims to reduce pollutants from Ganga riverD None of the aboveAns BFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ93 Recently in the news there was a term “Selfie Stick” What is this A A micro satelliteB A printerC A Graphene transistorD A newly launched i-phoneAns A The micro-satellite Banxing-2 is roughly the size of a desktop printer and the media has nicknamed “Selfie Stick” It weighs 47 kilogrammes Micro satellites weigh around 500 to 100 kilograms They are usually cheaper faster and more advanced than traditional satellites The commercial potential has attracted much attention from businesses FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ92 Which among the following organic compound is present in the whitener that has been banned under the montreal protocol A 111-trichloroethaneB TolueneC TrichloroehtyleneD BromopropaneAns AThis question has been framed keeping in mind that Uttarakhand High court has banned the use of WhitenerThinner contains organic solvents volatile organic compounds unused correction fluid thickens over time as volatile solvents escape into the air It can become too thick to use and sometimes completely solidifiesThinner originally contained toluene which was banned due to its toxicity Later it contained 111-trichloroethane a skin irritant now widely banned under the Montreal Protocol on Substances That Deplete the Ozone Layer and then the slightly safer trichloroethylene Thinners currently used with correction fluid include bromopropaneWhiteners contain hydrocarbons which is deadly solvents that can infuse easily with the blood and can affect the central nervous system of a personFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ91 With reference to the Ponzi schemes that has been recently in news consider the following statements :1 It is an investment fraud that falls under the purview of SEBI2 Union government amp co-operative banks are the enforcement agencies of these schemesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DIt is an investment fraud that do not falls under the purview of SEBIState government is the enforcement agencies of these schemesIt is a fraudulent investment operation where the operator an individual or organization pays returns to its investors from new capital paid to the operators by new investors rather than from profit earned through legitimate sources Operators of Ponzi schemes usually entice new investors by offering higher returns than other investments in the form of short-term returns that are either abnormally high or unusually consistentPonzi schemes occasionally begin as legitimate businesses until the business fails to achieve the returns expected The business becomes a Ponzi scheme if it then continues under fraudulent terms Whatever the initial situation the perpetuation of the high returns requires an ever-increasing flow of money from new investors to sustain the schemePonzi schemes sometimes commence operations as legitimate investment vehicles such as hedge funds For example a hedge fund can degenerate into a Ponzi scheme if it unexpectedly loses money or simply fails to legitimately earn the returns promised and/or thought to be expected and if the promoters instead of admitting their failure to meet expectations fabricate false returns and if necessary produce fraudulent audit reportsA pyramid scheme is a form of fraud similar in some ways to a Ponzi scheme relying as it does on a mistaken belief in a nonexistent financial reality including the hope of an extremely high rate of return FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ90 Recently Mitochondrial replacement therapy has been in news consider the following statements :1 It involves invitro amp invivo fertilization technique to replace defective mitochondria2 Through this technique embryo remains free from all the defectsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DIt involves invitro fertilization technique to replace defective mitochondria2nd statement is fabricated statement as it can’t be free from all the defectsMitochondrial replacement MRT sometimes called mitochondrial donation is a special form of in vitro fertilisation in which the future baby’s mitochondrial DNA comes from a third party This technique is used in cases when mothers carry genes for mitochondrial diseases The two most common techniques in mitochondrial donation are pronuclear transfer and maternal spindle transferIn 2015 MRT was made legal in the United Kingdom and in 2016 the first regulations were issued there clearing the way for procedures to begin In February 2016 the US National Academy of Sciences issued a report describing technologies then current and the surrounding ethical issuesFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ89 Which among the following countries comprises CLMV countries 1 Cambodia2 Laos3 Malaysia 4Vietnam Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A 124B Only 1 amp 3C 123D All are correctAns A CambodiaLaosMyanmar Vietnam are the CLMV Countries “India’s trade with the CLMV countries is over 11000 million USD and there is immense potential” The tri-lateral highway connectivity in the North East port connectivity improvement and the Act East policy are moves in that direction The External Affairs study proves that there’s a huge potential of about 100billion USD dollars of additional export The trade investment between India and the ASEAN countries is crucial since the CLMV countries cover 32 of the ASEAN region and has a huge market for Indian products and with a 165 million strong population This will attract considerable amount of FDI from India It has an open investment regime and does not discriminate between foreign and local investors It is investing heavily into its transport infrastructure” The Association of Southeast Asian Nations is a regional organisation comprising ten Southeast Asian states which promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic integration amongst its members Since its formation on August 8 1967 by Indonesia Malaysia the Philippines Singapore and Thailand the organisation’s membership has expanded to include Brunei Cambodia Laos Myanmar Burma and Vietnam Its principal aims include accelerating economic growth social progress and sociocultural evolution among its members alongside the protection of regional stability and the provision of a mechanism for member countries to resolve differences peacefully ASEAN PLUS THREE : The leaders of each country felt the need to further integrate the nations in the region Beginning in 1997 the bloc started creating organisations with the intention of achieving this goal ASEAN Plus Three was the first of these and was created to improve existing ties with the People’s Republic of China Japan and South Korea This was followed by the even larger East Asia Summit EAS which included ASEAN Plus Three countries as well as India Australia New Zealand the United States and Russia ASEAN PLUS SIX : Asean became Asean Plus Six with additional countries: Australia New Zealand and India And nowadays there are a new free trade area and it is called as Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership RCEP based on 16 countries of ASEAN plus six RCEP allows the member to protect local sectors and gives more times to comply the aim for developed country members FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ88 Which among the following are the member countries of SAARC Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A 134B Only 1 amp 3C 123D All are correctAns D The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation SAARC is the regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of nations in South Asia Its member states include Afghanistan Bangladesh Bhutan India Nepal the Maldives Pakistan and Sri Lanka SAARC comprises 3 of the world’s area 21 of the world’s population and 38 US 29 trillion of the global economy as of 2015 SAARC was founded in Dhaka on 8th December1985 Its secretariat is based in Kathmandu Nepal The organization promotes development of economic and regional integrationIt launched the South Asian Free Trade Area in 2006 SAARC maintains permanent diplomatic relations at the United Nations as an observer and has developed links with multilateral entities including the European Union SAARC has six Apex Bodies they are- • SAARC Chamber of Commerce amp Industry SCCI • South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation SAARCLAW • South Asian Federation of Accountants SAFA • South Asia Foundation SAF • South Asia Initiative to End Violence Against Children SAIEVAC • Foundation of SAARC Writers and Literature FOSWAL Hemant Batra is the current Secretary General of SAARC SAARC also has about 17 recognised bodies The Twelfth Summit approved the SAARC Award to support individuals and organisations within the region The main aims of the SAARC Award are: • To encourage individuals and organisations based in South Asia to undertake programmes and activities that complement the efforts of SAARC • To encourage individuals and organisations in South Asia contributing to bettering the conditions of women and children • To honour outstanding contributions and achievements of individuals and organisations within the region in the fields of peace development poverty alleviation environment protection and regional cooperation • To honour any other contributions and achievement not covered above of individuals and organisations in the region The SAARC Award consists of a gold medal a letter of citation and cash prize of US 25000 ₹15 lakhs Since the institution of the SAARC Award in 2004 it has been awarded only once and the Award was posthumously conferred upon the late President Ziaur Rahman of Bangladesh Member countries : Bangladesh Bhutan India Maldives Nepal Pakistan Sri Lanka and Afghanistan Observer countries: Australia China European Union Japan Iran Mauritius Myanmar South Korea and United States Q87 Consider the following:1 Fringe Benefit Tax2 Interest Tax3 Securities Transaction TaxWhich of the above is/ are Direct Tax/Taxes A1 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 2 and 3 Ans D Fringe Benefit Tax: The fringe benefits tax FBT was the tax applied to most although not all fringe benefits in India A new tax was imposed on employers by India’s Finance Act 2005 was introduced for the financial year commencing April 1 2005 The fringe benefit tax was temporarily suspended in the 2009 Union budget of India by Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee The following items were covered: • Employer’s expenses on entertainment travel employee welfare and accommodation The definition of fringe benefits that have become taxable has been significantly extended The law provides an exact list of taxable items • Employer’s provision of employee transportation to work or a cash allowances for this purpose • Employer’s contributions to an approved retirement plan called a superannuation fund • Employee stock option plans ESOPs have also been brought under fringe benefits tax from the fiscal year 2007–08 Minimum Support Price : Minimum Support Price MSP is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices The minimum support prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices CACP MSP is price fixed by Government of India to protect the producer – farmers – against excessive fall in price during bumper production years The minimum support prices are a guarantee price for their produce from the Government The major objectives are to support the farmers from distress sales and to procure food grains for public distribution In case the market price for the commodity falls below the announced minimum price due to bumper production and glut in the market government agencies purchase the entire quantity offered by the farmers at the announced minimum price In formulating the recommendations in respect of the level of minimum support prices and other non-price measures the Commission takes into account apart from a comprehensive view of the entire structure of the economy of a particular commodity or group of commodities the following factors:- • Cost of production • Changes in input prices • Input-output price parity • Trends in market prices • Demand and supply • Inter-crop price parity • Effect on industrial cost structure • Effect on cost of living • Effect on general price level • International price situation • Parity between prices paid and prices received by the farmers • Effect on issue prices and implications for subsidy The Commission makes use of both micro-level data and aggregates at the level of district state and the country The information/data used by the Commission inter-alia include the following :- • Cost of cultivation per hectare and structure of costs in various regions of the country and changes there in • Cost of production per quintal in various regions of the country and changes therein • Prices of various inputs and changes therein • Market prices of products and changes therein • Prices of commodities sold by the farmers and of those purchased by them and changes therein • Supply related information – area yield and production imports exports and domestic availability and stocks with the Government/public agencies or industry • Demand related information – total and per capita consumption trends and capacity of the processing industry • Prices in the international market and changes therein demand and supply situation in the world market • Prices of the derivatives of the farm products such as sugar jaggery jute goods edible/non-edible oils and cotton yarn and changes therein • Cost of processing of agricultural products and changes therein • Cost of marketing – storage transportation processing marketing services taxes/fees and margins retained by market functionaries and • Macro-economic variables such as general level of prices consumer price indices and those reflecting monetary and fiscal factors Q86 The main programme of the Red Shirts organised by Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan in support of the Civil Disobedience Movement was:A To proceed on the lines of terrorist amp revolutionary activitiesB To proopagate the Congress programmeC To resist the military operations of the govt in the north-western fronteir portionD To setup an para-military organizationAns B The Civil Disobedience Movement led by M K Gandhi in the year 1930 was an important milestone in the history of Indian Nationalism The prevalent political and social circumstances played a vital role in the launching of the Civil Disobedience Movement The Simon Commission was formed by the British Government that included solely the members of the British Parliament in November 1927 to draft and formalize a constitution for India The chairmanship of the commission rested with Sir John Simon who was a well known lawyer and an English statesman Accused of being an ‘All-White Commission’ the Simon Commission was rejected by all political and social segments of the country In Bengal the opposition to the Simon Commission assumed a massive scale with a hartal being observed in all corners of the province on February 3rd 1928 On the occasion of Simon’s arrival in the city demonstrations were conducted in Calcutta In the wake of the boycott of the recommendations proposed by Simon Commission an All-Party Conference was organized in Bombay in May of 1928 Dr MA Ansari was the president of the conference Motilal Nehru was given the responsibility to preside over the drafting committee appointed at the conference to prepare a constitution for India MK Gandhi was urged by the Congress to render his much needed leadership to the Civil Disobedience Movement On the historic day of 12th March 1930 Gandhi inaugurated The Civil Disobedience Movement by conducting the historic Dandi Salt March where he broke the Salt Laws imposed by the British Government The two main clauses of the Gandhi-Irwin pact entailed : Congress participation in the Round Table Conference and cessation of The Civil Disobedience Movement FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ85 In which among the following countries Zika virus was prevalent 1 Colombia2 Equador 3 El Salvador 4 JamaicaWhich among the above are correct A 134B 234C 123D 1234AnsDZika virus is not contagious but it is mainly transmitted by daytime-active Aedes aegypti mosquitoes after it bites someone infected with the virus and transmit it by biting another humanFRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12thQ84 Who considered Sanchi to be a centre of tree and serpent worship A James FergussonB James PrincepC MarshmanD CunninghamAns AFRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUALQ83 Which among the following are the legislative powers of the President 1 Power to summon two houses of the Parliament 2 President may dissolve the Lok Sabha 3 Bill passed by the parliament becomes an act after the President’s assent 4 Power to send back advice received from the council of ministers Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A 134 B 234 C 123 D1234 Ans C Real Executive Power : Power to send back advice received from the council of ministersFRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUALQ82 Which among the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor 1 Governor is advised amp aided by the council of ministers of state 2 In case of conflict between the council of ministers amp Governor decision of the governor is final 3 Governor can dissolve the assembly if CM advises him 4 Governor can recommend the President about the failure of the constitutional machinery 5 On his/her discretion Governor can reserve a bill passed by the state legislature for President’s assent Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1345B 2345C 1234 D 12345 Ans DFRAMED FROM ccrtindiagovinQ81 With reference to Kathakali consider the following statements : 1 Square and rectangular basic positions are commonly seen in Kathakali 2 Weight of the body is on the outer edges of the feet which are slightly bent and curved 3 It is characterized by facial expressions movement of eye balls amp lower eye lids Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3 B 2 amp 3 C 1 amp 2 D 123Ans D Introduction Kathakali is the most well known dance drama from the south Indian state of Kerala The word Kathakali literally means Story-Play It is known for its large elaborate makeup and costumes The elaborate costumes of Kathakali have become the most recognised icon for Kerala The themes of the Kathakali are religious in nature They typically deal with the Mahabarat the Ramayana and the ancient scriptures known as the Puranas This is performed in a text which is generally Sanskritised Malayalam A Kathakali performance is a major social event They generally start at dusk and go through out the night Kathakali is usually performed only by men Female characters are portrayed by men dressed in women’s costume However in recent years women have started to become Kathakali dancers Kathakali has a long tradition It dates back to the 17th century It was given its present form by Mahakavi Vallathol Narayan Menon who was the founder of the Kerala Kala Mandalam The actors rely very heavily on hand gesture to convey the story These hand gestures known as mudra are common through out much of classical Indian dance Costume The costume is the most distinctive characteristic of Kathakali The makeup is very elaborate and the costumes are very large and heavy There are several kinds of costume There are: Sathwika the hero Kathi the villain Minukku females and Thatti These basic divisions are further subdivided in a way which is very well known to Malayali Keralite audiences Each character is instantly recognisable by their characteristic makeup and costume The makeup is very elaborate It is so elaborate that it is more like a mask than makeup in the usual sense The materials that comprise the makeup is all locally available The white is made from rice flour the red is made from Vermilion a red earth such as cinnabar The black is made from soot The colours are not merely decoration but are also a means of portraying characters For instance red on the feet is used to symbolise evil character and evil intent Music The music of Kathakali has some similarity to the larger body of South Indian classical music Carnatic sangeet however the instrumentation is decidedly different Its local colour is strongly achieved by the use of instruments such as chenda idakka and shuddha madalam FRAMED FROM ccrtindiagovinQ80 In context with the Western Indian School consider the following statements : 1 The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism 2 Exaggeration of certain physical traits are present in Western Indian School 3 Figures are flat with angularity of features in this type of art Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3 B 2 amp 3 C 1 amp 2 D 123 Ans D The Western Indian style of painting prevailed in the region comprising Gujarat Rajasthan and Malwa The motivating force for the artistic activity in Western India was Jainism just as it was Buddhism in case of the Ajanta and the Pala arts Jainism was patronised by the Kings of the Chalukya Dynasty who ruled Gujarat and parts of Rajasthan and Malwa from 961 AD to the end of the 13th century An enormous number of Jain religious manuscripts were commissioned from 12th to 16th centuries by the princes their ministers and the rich Jain merchants for earning religious merit Many such manuscripts are available in the Jain libraries bhandaras which are found at many places in Western India FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12thQ79 What was Mahanavami Dibba with reference to the ancient period A Audience hallB Hospital where soldiers were treatedC Residence of the BhikshusD Place where Buddhist monks were assembledAns A The entire complex is surrounded by high double walls with a street running between them The audience hall is a high platform with slots for wooden pillars at close and regular intervals It had a staircase going up to the second floor which rested on these pillars The pillars being closely spaced would have left little free space and thus it is not clear what the hall was used for FRAMED FROM THE HINDU amp WIKEPEDIAQ78 Recently India has hosted Asian Ministerial Conference for Disaster Risk Reduction AMCDRR consider the following statements :1 It is a biennial conference jointly organized by all Asian countries2 It is a voluntary and non-binding treaty which recognizes that the UN member State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk3 ‘Asian Regional Plan for Implementation of the Sendai Framework’ has been adopted in this conferenceSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only2B 1 amp 3C Only 1D 2 amp 3Ans D India is hosting the 2016 Asian Ministerial Conference for Disaster Risk Reduction AMCDRR from November 3 to 5 2016 in New Delhi This will be second time India hosting AMCDRR The conference will be hosted by Union Government in collaboration with the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction UNISDR Key Facts It will be first AMCDRR after advent of Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction SFDRRR which was adopted at 3rd UN World Conference in Sendai Japan in March 2015 India by hosting AMCDRR re-affirms its commitment to the cause of Disaster Risk Reduction It will also set the direction of Sendai Framework implementation in the region The aim of the conference is to transform the commitments of governments and stakeholders during the Sendai Conference into national and local action AMCDRR 2016 will focus on consultation collaboration and partnership with governments and stakeholders to mainstream Disaster Risk Reduction DRR in the region It will adopt the ‘Asian Regional Plan for Implementation of the Sendai Framework’ endorsed by the Asian countries In this conference senior-level delegations from Asian countries representatives of UN bodies and Disaster Management experts will participate Background AMCDRR is a biennial conference jointly organized by different Asian countries and the UNISDR It was established in 2005 So far 6 AMCDRR conferences have been organised For the first time India had also hosted the second AMCDRR in 2007 in New Delhi About Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-30 It is an international Treaty that was approved by UN member states in March 2015 at the Third World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction held in Sendai Japan It is a voluntary and non-binding treaty which recognizes that the UN member State has the primary role to reduce disaster risk It has framework for 15-year ie 2015 to 2020 It also calls for sharing the responsibility with other stakeholders including local government the private sector and other stakeholders It is successor of the Hyogo Framework for Action 2005–2015 which had been the most encompassing international accord on disaster risk reduction It sets of common standards a comprehensive framework with achievable targets and a legally-based instrument for disaster risk reduction It calls for adopting integrated and inclusive institutional measures for preventing vulnerability to disaster increase preparedness for response and recovery and strengthen resilience Four specific priorities of Sendai Framework: i Understanding disaster risk ii Strengthening disaster risk governance to manage disaster risk iii Investing in disaster risk reduction for resilience iv Enhancing disaster preparedness for effective response and recovery reconstruction and rehabilitation FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ77 Which among the following are the conventions of the recently ratified Paris agreement 1 Holding the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2 °C above pre-industrial levels2 On the path of Kyoto Protocol it provides a specific division between developed and developing nations3 Making finance flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate-resilient developmentSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans A The Paris Agreement is an agreement within the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change UNFCCC dealing with greenhouse gases emissions mitigation adaptation and finance starting in the year 2020 It was opened for signature on 22 April 2016 Earth Day at a ceremony in New York As of December 2016 194 UNFCCC members have signed the treaty 120 of which have ratified it After several European Union states ratified the agreement in October 2016 there were enough countries that had ratified the agreement that produce enough of the world’s greenhouse gases for the agreement to enter into force The agreement went into effect on 4 November 2016 The aim of the convention is described in Article 2 enhancing the implementation of the UNFCCC through: a Holding the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2 °C above pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 15 °C above pre-industrial levels recognizing that this would significantly reduce the risks and impacts of climate change b Increasing the ability to adapt to the adverse impacts of climate change and foster climate resilience and low greenhouse gas emissions development in a manner that does not threaten food production c Making finance flows consistent with a pathway towards low greenhouse gas emissions and climate-resilient development Difference between Paris agreement amp Kyoto Protocol : Kyoto Protocol differentiated between Annex-1 and non-Annex-1 countries this bifurcation is blurred in the Paris Agreement as all parties will be required to submit emissions reductions plans While the Paris Agreement still emphasizes the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibility—the acknowledgement that different nations have different capacities and duties to climate action—it does not provide a specific division between developed and developing nations The Paris Agreement is open for signature by States and regional economic integration organizations that are Parties to the UNFCCC the Convention from 22 April 2016 to 21 April 2017 at the UN Headquarters in New York FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12thQ76 With reference to the architectural styles consider the following statements :1 Neo-Gothic characterised by high-pitched roofs pointed arches and detailed decoration2 Gothic style had its roots in buildings especially churches built in northern Europe during the medieval period3 neo-Gothic style was revived in the mid-nineteenth century in England amp was adapted forBombaySelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 123D Only 2Ans CThe most spectacular example of the neo-Gothic style is the Victoria Terminus the station and headquarters of the Great Indian Peninsular Railway CompanyFRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 8thQ75 With reference to the ancient period which among the following is/are correctly marched 1 Mobato : Village headman2 Pykars : Travelling traders3 Chapkan : Long button coatSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 2B 1 amp 3C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DQ74 Which one of the following is not identified by Central Pollution Control Board as heavily polluting industryA Pulp and paperB SugarC TeaD FertilizerAns CFRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12thQ73 With reference to the Guru Nanak consider the following statements 1 He advocated a form of nirguna bhakti2 Sacrifices ritual baths image worship austerities and the scriptures of both Hindus and Muslims were rejected by Guru NanakSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CFRAMED FROM ccrtindiagovinQ72 With reference to the Odissi dance consider the following statements : 1 Torso movement is an unique feature of the Odissi style 2 Lower half of the body remaining static the torso moves from one side to the other along the axis passing through the centre of the upper half of the body 3 There are certain foot positions with flat toe or heel contact 4 In addition to the leg movement there are a variety of gaits for doing pirouettes Which among the above statements are correctly matched A 134B 234 C 123 D 1234 Ans D Odissi is considered a dance of love joy and intense passion pure divine and human Over a period of time three schools of Odissi dance developed they are- Mahari Nartaki and Gotipau The Mahari system traces its roots in the Devadasi tradition The dance form of Odissi that developed in royal courts is called the Nartaki tradition In the Gotipau tradition of Odissi dance young boys dress up in female attires and enact female roles Before the 17th century Odissi dance was held in great esteem due to patronage and support of local rulers and nobles During this period even the royalty was expected to be accomplished dancers However the scenario changed after the 17th century The dancing girls were thought of as prostitutes and from here the social position of dancers began to decline During the colonial period too the position of Odissi dance suffered due to anti-nautch attitude of the British With India gaining independence there began great efforts to revive the classical Indian dances The government came to realize the role of cultural heritage in creating a national identity A number of people and experts took initiatives for the reconstruction and popularization of Odissi dance Some of the notable are Guru Deba Prasad Das Guru Mayadhar Raut Guru Pankaj Charan Das Guru Mahadev Rout Guru Raghu Dutta and Guru Kelu Charan Mahapatra One of the most distinguishing features of Odissi dance is the Tribhangi The notion of Tribhang divides the body into three parts head bust and torso The postures dealing with these three elements are called Tribhangi This concept has created the very characteristic poses which are more twisted than found in other classical Indian dances Mudra is also an important component of Odissi dance The term Mudra means stamp and is a hand position which suggests things Odissi themes are almost religious in nature and mostly revolve around Krishna Q71 Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to him/her1 The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid2 The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it is found validWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns BQ70 Consider the following statements :1 Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution2 Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and holds the office of the Vice-President of India for a period of six yearsWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AVice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and holds the office of the Vice-President of India for a period of five yearsFRAMED FROM HISTORY NEW NCERT CLASS 12thQ69 With reference to the ancient period who was/were dubashes 1 Dubashes were Indians who could speak two languages – the local language and English2 They worked as agents and merchants acting as intermediaries between Indian society and the BritishWhich among the above statements is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA amp THE HINDU Q68 With reference to the Organ transplantation consider the following statements 1 Domino transplant allows all organ recipients to get a transplant even if their living donor is not a match to them2 Organ donation is possible even after brain amp cardiac death 3 In organ transplantation brain cannot be transplantedSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 2B 2 amp 3C Only 1D All are correctAns D Organ transplantation is the moving of an organ from one body to another or from a donor site to another location on the person’s own body to replace the recipient’s damaged or absent organ Organs and/or tissues that are transplanted within the same person’s body are called autografts Transplants that are recently performed between two subjects of the same species are called allografts Allografts can either be from a living or cadaveric source Organs that can be transplanted are the heart kidneys liver lungs pancreas intestine and thymus Some organs like the brain cannot be transplanted Tissues include bones tendons both referred to as musculoskeletal grafts cornea skin heart valves nerves and veins Worldwide the kidneys are the most commonly transplanted organs followed by the liver and then the heart Cornea and musculoskeletal grafts are the most commonly transplanted tissues these outnumber organ transplants by more than tenfold Organ donors may be living brain dead or dead via circulatory death Tissue may be recovered from donors who die of circulatory death as well as of brain death – up to 24 hours past the cessation of heartbeat Unlike organs most tissues with the exception of corneas can be preserved and stored for up to five years meaning they can be banked Transplantation raises a number of bioethical issues including the definition of death when and how consent should be given for an organ to be transplanted and payment for organs for transplantation Other ethical issues include transplantation tourism and more broadly the socio-economic context in which organ procurement or transplantation may occur A particular problem is organ trafficking Transplantation medicine is one of the most challenging and complex areas of modern medicine Some of the key areas for medical management are the problems of transplant rejection during which the body has an immune response to the transplanted organ possibly leading to transplant failure and the need to immediately remove the organ from the recipient When possible transplant rejection can be reduced through serotyping to determine the most appropriate donor-recipient match and through the use of immunosuppressant drugs Autografts are the transplant of tissue to the same person Sometimes this is done with surplus tissue tissue that can regenerate or tissues more desperately needed elsewhere examples include skin grafts vein extraction for CABG etc Sometimes an autograft is done to remove the tissue and then treat it or the person before returning it examples include stem cell autograft and storing blood in advance of surgery In a rotationplasty a distal joint is used to replace a more proximal one typically a foot or ankle joint is used to replace a knee joint The person’s foot is severed and reversed the knee removed and the tibia joined with the femur FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA amp THE HINDU Q67 With reference to the Bioprinting consider the following statements :1 Creation of fabricated structures that are identical to the natural structure that are found in the tissues and organs in the human body is one of the main approach of bioprinting2 Bio-ink is a material made from living as well as non-living cells in order to create a desired shape3 Combination of both biomimicry and self-assembly approaches are known as mini tissuesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 1 amp 2Ans A 3D bioprinting is the process of creating cell patterns in a confined space using 3D printing technologies where cell function and viability are preserved within the printed constructGenerally 3D bioprinting utilizes the layer-by-layer method to create tissue-like structures that are later used in medical and tissue engineering fieldsBioprinting covers a broad range of materials Currently bioprinting can be used to print tissues and organs to help research drugs and pills In addition 3D bioprinting has begun to incorporate the printing of scaffolds These scaffolds can be used to regenerate joints and ligaments The first patent related to this technology was filed in the United States in 2003 and granted in 2006 3D bioprinting for fabricating biological constructs typically involves dispensing cells onto a biocompatible scaffold using a successive layer-by-layer approach to generate tissue-like three-dimensional structures Artificial organs such as livers and kidneys made by 3D bioprinting have been shown to lack crucial elements that affect the body such as working blood vessels tubules for collecting urine and the growth of billions of cells required for these organs Without these components the body has no way to get the essential nutrients and oxygen deep within their interiors The first approach of bioprinting is called biomimicry The main goal of this approach is to create fabricated structures that are identical to the natural structure that are found in the tissues and organs in the human body This approach relies on the physical process of embryonic organ development then replicates the tissues by using this process as a model The third approach of bioprinting is a combination of both the biomimicry and self-assembly approaches which is called mini tissues Organs and tissues are built from very small functional components Mini-tissue approach takes these small pieces and manufacture and arrange them into larger frameworkThis approach uses two different strategies The first strategy is when self-assembling cell spheres are arranged into large scaled tissues by using natural designs as a guide The second strategy is when designing precise high quality reproductions of a tissue and allowing them to self-assemble into large scaled functional tissue The mixture of these strategies is required to print a complex three dimensional biological structure Bio-ink is a material made from living cells that behaves much like a liquid allowing people to print it in order to create a desired shape To make bio-ink scientists create a slurry of cells that can be loaded into a cartridge and inserted into a specially designed printer along with another cartridge containing a gel known as bio-paperPotential uses for bio-ink include creating sheets of skin for skin grafts and vascular tissues to replace veins and arteries In bioprinting there are three major types of printers that have been used These are inkjet laser-assisted and extrusion printers Inkjet printers are mainly used in bioprinting for fast and large-scale products One type of inkjet printer called drop-on-demand inkjet printer prints materials in exact amounts minimizing cost and wastePrinters that utilize lasers provide high-resolution printing however these printers are often expensive Extrusion printers print cells layer-by-layer just like 3D printing to create 3D constructs In addition to just cells extrusion printers may also use hydrogels infused with cells In early 2015 3-D printing techniques expanded to include materials such as graphene a material possessing unique properties such as high levels of strength rather than only plastics FRAMED FROM INVESTOPEDIAQ66 Recently Bulldog bonds are in news with reference to these bonds consider the following statements :1 These are purchased from the sterling bonds in order to earn revenue 2 These bonds are similar to the Yankee bonds which can be sold to raise capital3 US investors are restricted to purchase this bond as these are traded in United kingdomSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3 B Only 3C 1 amp 2D Only 1Ans C A type of bond purchased by buyers interested in earning a revenue stream from the British pound or sterling A bulldog bond is traded in the United Kingdom If the revenue is used to reduce debt also in British pounds the exchange rate risk is decreased These bonds are issued by non-British institutions that want to sell the bond in the United Kingdom US investors can also purchase this bond but by doing so they take on the risk of the change in value of the sterling |
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आईएएस 2019 प्रिलिम्स -मौक सवाल-हिंदी मेँ – इस लिँक पर क्लिक करेँ MOCK Q418- FRAMED FROM Google Books Q With reference to the Dongria Kondh consider the following statements :1 These are the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal groups worshiping Niyam Raja of sacred Niyamgiri mountain 2 Racially these belong to the Mongoloid group amp linguistically they belong to the Tibeto-Burman groupSelect the correct answer using the code given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AKarbi tribe : Racially these belong to the Mongoloid group amp linguistically they belong to the Tibeto-Burman groupDongria Kondh : Of Odisha These are the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal groups who worship Niyam Raja of sacred Niyamgiri mountain They also won legal battle against Vedanta group over Bauxite mining in the region MOCK Q417- FRAMED FROM Google Books Q Every year a community celebrates a festival Hari Jyoti for planting fruit bearing trees at the beginning of the rains amp the new sowing season Which of the following is such community/ tribe A GondsB Dongria KondhC BondaD KarbiAns AGonds : Of Madhya PradeshKorku tribe : Of Madhya PradeshKarbi tribe : Of AssamLimbo tribe : Of SikkimBonda : Of OdishaDongria Kondh : Of OdishaKorku tribe : Of Madhya PradeshMOCK Q416- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q To fulfill the Government of India’s mission amp to promote the spirit of entrepreneurship in the country Academia Alliance Programme has been formed With whose initiative Academia Alliance Programme has been formed A Niti AyogB Confederation of Indian IndustriesC Startup IndiaD Ministry of New amp Renewable EnergyAns CTo fulfill the Governmentof India’s mission to promote the spirit of entrepreneurship in the country Startup India launched the Startup Academia Alliance programme a unique mentorship opportunity between academic scholars and startups working in similar domains The Startup Academia Alliance aims to reduce the gap between scientific research and its industrial applications in order to increase the efficacy of these technologies and to widen their impact By creating a bridge between academia and industry the Alliance strives to create lasting connections between the stakeholders of the startup ecosystem and implement the third pillar on which the Startup India Action Plan is based – Industry Academia Partnerships and Incubation The first phase of Startup Academia Alliance was kickstarted through partnering with Regional Centre for Biotechnology The Energy and Resources Institute TERI Council on Energy Environment and Water and TERI School of Advanced Studies Renowned scholars from these institutes in fields such as renewableenergy biotechnology healthcare and life sciences were taken on board to provide mentorship and guidance to startups working in relevant arenasMOCK Q415- FRAMED FROM SPECTRUM HISTORY Q Consider the following statements :1 In 1916 session Congress accepted theMuslim League demand of separate electorates 2 Communal award accepted all the muslim communal demands contained in the 14 pointsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CIn 1916 session Congress accepted the Muslim League demand of separate electorates amp the Congress amp The League presented joint demands to the governmentCommunal award accepted all the muslim communal demands contained in the 14 pointsMOCK Q414- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With respect to the South Asia Sub Regional Economic Cooperation SASEC consider the following statements :1 SASEC program set up in 2001 to promote regional prosperity by improving cross border connectivity 2 World Trade Organisation serves as the secretariat for the SAESC member CountriesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns ASASEC program set up in 2001 to promote regional prosperity by improving cross border connectivityIt brings together Bangladesh Bhutan India Maldives Myanmar Nepal Srilanka Manila Phillipines based Asian development Bank ADB serves as the secretariat for the SAESC member CountriesMOCK Q413- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With respect to the Permanent Court of Arbitration PCA consider the following statements :1 PCA was established by treaty at the first Hague Peace Conference at Netherlands2 The order is not binding on the countries as it can be appealed in the UN tribunal3 121 member states are the part of the PCA including IndiaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans APermanent Court of Arbitration PCA:PCA was established by treaty at the first Hague Peace Conference at Netherlands in 1899The order is binding on the countries as there is no appeal process in the UN tribunal121 member states 119 members of the United Nations as well as Kosovo amp Palestine are the part of the PCA India is a part to the PCA according to the Hague Convention on 1899 MOCK Q412- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With respect to the Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing amp Urban Development APMCHUD consider the following statements :1 Sixth edition of the conference held in New Delhi in 2016 with the theme “ A Vision for sustainable Urbanisation in The Asia Pacific by 2020”2 It was established under the aegis amp support of UN HabitatSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are in correctAns BSixth edition of the conference held in New Delhi in 2016 with the theme “ Emerging Urban Forms –Policy Reforms amp Governance Structures in the Context of New Urban Agenda”2006 THEME : “ A Vision for sustainable Urbanisation in The Asia Pacific by 2020MOCK Q411- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With respect to the International Trade Centre consider the following statements :1 ITC is the joint technical corporation agency of the UN conference on trade amp Development UNCTAD amp World Trade Organisation WTO2 They are subordinate to the United Nations amp derive most of their financial resources other than the Union Nation BudgetsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are in correctAns AITC is the joint technical corporation agency of the UN conference on trade amp Development UNCTAD amp World Trade Organisation WTOITC’s regular programme is financed in equal parts by WTO amp UNMOCK Q410- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q Which among the following crops have been classified under the category of Minor Forest products 1 Tendu Patta2 Bamboo3 Pulpwood 4 SoapnutSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 124B Only 1 amp 3C 134D Only 1 amp 4Ans AThe Major Forest Products comprise Pulpwood Sandalwood Social Forestry that incudes Fuel and Timber The Minor Forest Products include the items such as tamarind curry leaf Tendu Patta gallnut Cane Soapnut tree moss and now Bamboo alsoMOCK Q409- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With reference to the news what is “INSTEX” A It is a 2000 ft long device to start clean up in the North Pacific OceanB It is a transaction channel that will allow companies to continue trading with Iran despite US sanctionsC It is a natural gas pipeline being developed with the participation of the Asian Development BankD It is the rule book that sets out how countries will provide information about their Nationally Determined Contributions Ans B• The transaction channel will allow European businesses to trade with Iran despite strict US sanctions• Though the payment channel is a project of Britain France and Germany it will receive the formal endorsement of all 28 EU members• It will support legitimate European trade with Iran focusing initially on the sectors most essential to the Iranian population such as pharmaceutical medical devices and agri-food goods• In the longer term INSTEX aims to be open to third countries wanting to trade with Iran• However INSTEX is not yet operational as it needs Iran to set up a parallel structure of its own which may take some time to complete• While it is aimed at small and medium-sized companies it is expected to send an important message to Iran about Europe’s commitment to keep the nuclear deal aliveObjective The launch of the special payment channel is a clear and practical demonstration of Europe’s commitment to continuing the nuclear dealIt however does not in any way preclude the European Union from addressing Iran’s hostile and destabilising activitiesEurope has toughened its tone on Iran’s ballistic missile programme human rights record and interference in Middle East conflictsMOCK Q408- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana consider the following statements :1 Spouse will not be entitled to receive pension in case of death2 Workers covered under the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation will not be entitled to pension3 It is 100 funded by the Union government Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C Only 2D 1 amp 2Ans C• The unorganised sector workers with income of less than Rs 15000 per month and who belong to the entry age group of 18-40 years will be eligible for the scheme • Those workers should not be covered under New Pension Scheme NPS Employees’ State Insurance Corporation ESIC scheme or Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation EPFO• He or she should not be an income tax payerThe workers of unorganised sector can be home based workers street vendors mid-day meal workers head loaders brick kiln workers cobblers rag pickers domestic workers washer men rickshaw pullers landless labourers own account workers agricultural workers construction workers beedi workers handloom workers leather workers audio- visual workers and similar other occupationsBenefits under Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan YojanaMinimum Assured Pension: Each subscriber under the scheme will receive minimum assured pension of Rs 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 yearsIn case of death during receipt of pension: If the subscriber dies during the receipt of pension his or her spouse will be entitled to receive 50 percent of the pension as family pension This family pension is applicable only to spouseIn case of death before the age of 60 years: If a beneficiary has given regular contribution and dies before attaining the age of 60 years his or her spouse will be entitled to continue the scheme subsequently by payment of regular contribution or may even exit the schemeEqual contribution by the Central Government: Under the PM-SYM the prescribed age-specific contribution by the beneficiary and the matching contribution by the Central Government will be made on a ‘50:50 basis’MOCK Q407- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q Which of the following best describes SHREYAS scheme A It is the scheme launched by HRD Ministry to promote entrepreneurship by mentoring nurturing and facilitating startupsB It is the scheme implemented by Sector Skill Council for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and SkillsC It is the scheme launched by HRD ministry for translational and advanced research in Science to fund science projectsD It is the scheme implemented by Institution’s Innovation Council for self-actualisation providing opportunities for a life-long learningAns CSHREYAS: Scheme for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and SkillsFunctioning of the Scheme:The scheme will be operated in conjunction with National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme NAPS which provides for placing of apprentices or trainees up to 10 percent of the total work force in every industry The scheme will be implemented by the Sector Skill Councils SSCs initially in the Banking Finance Insurance Services BFSI Retail Health care Telecom Logistics Media Management services ITeS and Apparel More sectors would be added over time with emerging apprenticeship demandMOCK Q406- FRAMED FROM IUCN WEBSITE Q With reference to the Sandbag Climate Campaign consider the following statements :1 It was launched as a campaign on the European Union’s Emission Trading Scheme2 It addresses the negative effects of global warming as a result of heightened socioeconomic and environmental vulnerabilitiesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns A–Sandbag or Sandbag Climate Campaign is a Community Interest Company campaigning for changes to European climate change policy especially emissions trading The organisation was launched in 2008 by Bryony Worthington and was the first and founding member of The Guardian’s Environment NetworkSandbag was launched as a campaign on the European Union’s Emission Trading Scheme allowing its members to campaign to reduce the number of permits in circulation and to purchase permits and cancel themClimate Vulnerable Forum CVF: The forum addresses the negative effects of global warming as a result of heightened socioeconomic and environmental vulnerabilitiesMOCK Q405- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana consider the following statements :1 It will provide assured income to all Institutional Land holders of Rs 6000 per year2 It is based on providing guaranteed amount of Rs 1000/- or Rs2000 per hectare in case of drought or loss of crop by the animalsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D• The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi will provide assured income to small and marginal farmers• All Small and Marginal Farmers SMF with 2 hectares of cultivable land will be provided income support of Rs 6000 per year• The amount will be transferred directly into their account in 3 equal installments• The complete expenditure of Rs 75000 crore for the scheme will borne by the Union Government in 2019-20• Over 12 crore farmer families will be benefitted under the schemeThe scheme is being implemented with effect from December 2018The following categories of beneficiaries of higher economic status shall not be eligible for benefit under the scheme A All Institutional Land holders B Farmer families in which one or more of its members belong to following categories: 1 Former and present holders of constitutional posts2 Former and present Ministers/ State Ministers and former/present Members of LokSabha/ RajyaSabha/ State Legislative Assemblies/ State Legislative Councilsformer and present Mayors of Municipal Corporations former and present Chairpersons of District Panchayats3 All serving or retired officers and employees of Central/ State Government Ministries /Offices/Departments and its field units Central or State PSEs and Attached offices /Autonomous Institutions under Government as well as regular employees of the Local Bodies Excluding Multi Tasking Staff /Class IV/Group D employees4 All superannuated/retired pensioners whose monthly pension is ₹10000/-or more Excluding Multi Tasking Staff / Class IV/Group D employees of above category5 All Persons who paid Income Tax in last assessment year6 Professionals like Doctors Engineers Lawyers Chartered Accountants and Architects registered with Professional bodies and carrying out profession by undertaking practicesMOCK Q404- FRAMED FROM Spectrum- Modern India Q Swadeshi Sangam was formed to ispire the local masses through magic lantern lectures Swadeshi songsWho was/were the members of the Swadeshi Sangam 1 VO Chidambaram Pillai2 Abanindranath Tagore3 Subramania SivaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 1C 2 amp 3D 123Ans AIn Tirunelveli Tamil Nadu VO Chidambaram Pillai Subramania Siva amp Some lawyers formed the Swadeshi Sangam which inspired the local massesMOCK Q403- FRAMED FROM Spectrum- Modern India Q With reference to the Indian National Movement What was Official Secrets Act A Under this act Natu brothers were deported without trial amp Tilak imprisoned on charges of seditionB Repressive laws under IPC section 124 A were amplified with new provisions under IPC 156 AC It was the administrative measure to curb the freedom of pressD Under this act It ensured greater government control over the universitiesAns COfficial Secrets Act : 1904 It was the administrative measure to curb the freedom of press1897 : Natu brothers were deported without trial amp Tilak imprisoned on charges of sedition1898 : Repressive laws under IPC section 124 A were amplified with new provisions under IPC 156 AIndian Universities Act 1904 : greater government control over the universitiesMOCK Q402- FRAMED FROM The Hindu Q With reference to the Halogen Light Bulbs consider the following statements :1 White coating also known as Phosphor coating on the glass absorbs UV light amp protect from the UV rays2 They have the same tungsten filament as the typical incandescent light bulbs 3 Fluorescent coating is often used in these bulbs to add brightnessSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B 123C Only 2D 1 amp 2Ans CFluorescent bulbs : White coating also known as Phosphor coating on the glass absorbs UV light amp protect from the UV raysVapour lamps : Fluorescent coating is often used in these bulbs to add brightnessA halogen lamp also known as a tungsten halogen quartz-halogen or quartz iodine lamp is an incandescent lamp consisting of a tungsten filament sealed into a compact transparent envelope that is filled with a mixture of an inert gas and a small amount of a halogensuch as iodine or bromine The combination of the halogen gas and the tungsten filament produces a halogen cycle chemical reaction which redeposits evaporated tungsten to the filament increasing its life and maintaining the clarity of the envelope For this to happen a halogen lamp must be operated at a higher envelope temperature 250° C 482° F1 than a standard vacuum incandescent lamp of similar power and operating life this also produces light with higher luminous efficacy and color temperature The small size of halogen lamps permits their use in compact optical systems for projectors and illumination The small glass envelope may be enclosed in a much larger outer glass bulb for a bigger package the outer jacket will be at a much lower and safer temperature and it also protects the hot bulb from harmful contamination and makes the bulb mechanically more similar to a conventional lamp that it might replaceStandard and halogen incandescent bulbs are much less efficient than LED and compact fluorescent lamps and have been banned in many jurisdictions because of thisMOCK Q401- FRAMED FROM The Hindu Q Consider the following statements :1 Origin of Bitcoin is virtually anonymous amp is not monitored by any Central bank or Government2 Anyone with a bitcoin address can send amp receive bitcoins from anyone else with a bitcoin address Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CBitcoin is a cryptocurrency a form of electronic cash It is a decentralized digital currency without a central bank or single administrator that can be sent from user to user on the peer-to-peer bitcoin network without the need for are verified by network nodes through cryptography and recorded in a public distributed ledger called a blockchain Bitcoin was invented by an unknown person or group of people using the name Satoshi Nakamoto and released as open-source software in 2009 Bitcoins are created as a reward for a process known as mining They can be exchanged for other currencies products and services Research produced by the University of Cambridge estimates that in 2017 there were 29 to 58 million unique users using a cryptocurrency wallet most of them using bitcoin Bitcoin has been criticized for its use in illegal transactions its high electricity consumption price volatility thefts from exchanges and the possibility that bitcoin is an economic bubble Bitcoin has also been used as an investment although several regulatory agencies have issued investor alerts about bitcoinMOCK Q400- FRAMED FROM M LAXMIKANTH Q Consider the following statements :1In India Only the powers of the Federal Government are enumerated in the constitution amp the residuary powers are left to the states 2 Government of India Act 1935 provided for three fold enumeration ie Federal Provincial amp CurrentSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B Only 2C Both are correct D Both are incorrectAns B-In US Only the powers of the Federal Government are enumerated in the constitution amp the residuary powers are left to the states -Power to make laws with respect to the residuary subjects which are not enumerated in any of the three list is vested in the ParliamentMOCK Q399- FRAMED FROM M LAXMIKANTH Q Which among the following statement best describes “Discretionary Grants” A It empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance B These are the grants in lieu of export duties on Jute amp Jute products to the states of Assam BiharOrissa amp West BengalC Theses are the grants for promoting welfare of the scheduled tribes in a stateD These are the grants that empower both the centre amp states to make any grants for any public purpose even if it is not within their respective legislative competenceAns DStatutory Grants : Article 75 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistanceOther Grants : These are the grants in lieu of export duties on Jute amp Jute products to the states of Assam Bihar Orissa amp West BengalDiscretionary Grants :These are the grants that empower both the centre amp states to make any grants for any public purpose even if it is not within their respective legislative competenceMOCK Q398- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With reference to the news what is Talanoa dialogue A It is a process designed to help countries enhance and implement their Nationally Determined Contributions by 2020B It is a process to help countries by forming the rule book to implement the Paris Climate AgreementC It gives countries a common framework for reporting and reviewing progress towards their climate targetsD It provides a global platform for the conservation of Migratory animals amp their habitatsAns A–The 2017 United Nations Climate Change Conference COP23 was an international meeting of political leaders non-state actors and activists to discuss environmental issues It was held at UN Campus in Bonn Germany from 6–17 November 2017Although COP23 focused primarily on technical details of the Paris Agreement COP23 concluded with what was called the ‘Fiji Momentum for Implementation’ which outlined the steps that need to be taken in 2018 to make the Paris Agreement operational and launched the –Talanoa Dialogue – a process designed to help countries enhance and implement their Nationally Determined Contributions by 2020MOCK Q397 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q Consider the following statements :1 Mangroves for the Future MFF has participation of Asian amp African nations only2 IUCN amp United Nation Development Programme UNDP developed MFF in 20063 MFF not only conserves Mangrove forests but includes all types of coastal ecosystems like coral reefsestuaries wetlands etcSelect the correct answer using the correct codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DMangroves for the Future MFFLocation: Member countries: Bangladesh Cambodia India Indonesia Maldives Myanmar Pakistan Seychelles Sri Lanka Thailand and Viet Nam Outreach countries: Malaysia Dialogue countries: Kenya and TanzaniaDuration: Established in 2006 MFF is currently in its third phase 2015 – 2018 Project Background: The devastation caused by the Indian Ocean tsunami of December 2004 laid bare the vital link between coastal ecosystems and human livelihoods It was United States President Bill Clinton’s vision that rebuilding in tsunami-hit areas should improve natural infrastructure and strengthen resilience against future natural disasters In response to this vision IUCN International Union for Conservation of Nature and the United Nations Development Programme UNDP developed Mangroves for the Future in 2006 Since then MFF has grown to include eight institutional partners plus a growing number of countries At the launch of the Tsunami Legacy report at the United Nations in New York in April 2009 Bill Clinton acclaimed MFF as one of the most positive and forward-looking developments of the post-tsunami periodMangroves for the Future MFF is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal ecosystem conservation for sustainable development Co-chaired by IUCN and UNDP MFF provides a platform for collaboration among the many different agencies sectors and countries which are addressingchallenges to coastal ecosystem and livelihood issues The goal is to promote an integrated ocean-wide approach to coastal management and to building the resilience of ecosystem-dependent coastal communities Mangroves are the flagship of the initiative but MFF is inclusive of all types of coastal ecosystem such as coral reefs estuaries lagoons sandy beaches seagrass and wetlandsMOCK Q396 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q Which one of the following best describes the term Malacca Dilemma sometimes seen in news A It refers to the demarcation line used initially by the government of republic of China B ONGC Videsh Limited signed a contract with the petro Vietnam to jointly explore petroleum resourcesC It is the Nine Dash line area that covers most of the South China sea amp overlaps exclusive economic zoneD It signifies China’s dependency for the energy needs on West AsiaAns DThe “Malacca Dilemma” is a term coined by their President Hu Jintao2003 on the over-reliance on the Malacca Straitssea-route where 80 of their energy needsoil imports pass en-route from the Middle East Angola etcshipping lanes through the Malacca Straitsbetween Malaysia and Indonesia This area is also prone to piracy sometimesConflict in the region and their effect on China’s geopolitical and energy strategies and other issues that can crop up from time to time together constitute the “Malacca Dilemma”MOCK Q395 – FRAMED FROM GCCA WEBSITE Q Global Climate Change Alliance Initiative for country’s vulnerability to climate change is managed by the :A The European CommissionB The Global Environment FacilityC UNDPD World BankAns AThe Global Climate Change Alliance Plus GCCA is a European Union flagship initiative which is helpingthe world’s most vulnerable countries to address climate change Having started with just four pilot projects in 2008 it has become a major climate initiative that has funded over 70 projects of nationalregional and worldwide scope in Africa Asia the Caribbean and the Pacific This EU initiative helps mainly Small Islands Developing States SIDS and Least Developed Countries LDCs increase their resilience to climate change The GCCA also supports these group of countries in implementing their commitments resulting from the 2015 Paris Agreement on Climate Change COP21 in line with the2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and the new European Consensus on DevelopmentThe GCCA initiative is making a significant contribution towards achieving the overall target of at least 20 of the EU budget spent for climate action All GCCA projects must primarily aim at facilitating the transition to a climate-resilient low-carbon future in line with the 2°C targetGCCA funding increased from EUR 3175 million in the first phase 2007-2014 to EUR 420 million in the second phase 2014-2020 Read more on financial resourcesMOCK Q394 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q Which among the following topics are exempted from the courses covered under the LEAP amp ARPIT PROGRAMME for higher education faculty 1 Establishment of the National Anti-profiteering Authority2 Internet of Things3 Tools techniques and experiments in reducing Greenhouse gases emission4 Methodology of Teaching SanskritSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 4B Only 1C 1 amp 3D 124Ans CHRD Ministry launches LEAP and ARPIT programmes for higher education facultyThe courses cover a diverse range of topics such as:Indian culture and Heritage Studies Tribal and Regional languages Urdu French StudiesPedagogical Innovations amp Research Methodology Tools techniques and experiments in Earth ScienceLatest Trends in Pedagogy and Assessment Mathematics Statistics Zoology Chemistry Physics Biotechnology Development and Counselling Marine Science Calculus Real Time Power Analysis and Smart GridNeural Networks and Deep Learning amp Knowledge discovery Civil Infrastructure for Smart City DevelopmentICT in Science and Maths teaching Engineering Mechanics Design Spectrum DIY Manufacturing TechnologyInnovation and Best Practices in Educational Skills Advanced Concepts in Fluid Mechanics Energy Systems EngineeringLeadership and Governance in Higher Education Engineering Mechanics Physics of Semiconductors and Devices Electrical EngineeringPublic Policy and Administration Bio-Medical engineering Metallurgical Engineering and Materials Sciences Chemical EngineeringEnglish Language Teaching Internet of ThingsHindi Literature amp Linguistics Astronomy and AstrophysicsMethodology of Teaching Sanskrit Aerospace Engineering Tourism and Hospitality ManagementEffective Creations and Innovative Researches in Medieval Gujarati Literature Political Science Economics Psychology Development Perspectives in AgricultureLibrary amp Information Science Ethics Human Rights and Environment Anthropology Gender/Women’s studies Law Social and Rural DevelopmentDisaster Management Climate change MOCK Q393 – FRAMED FROM NITIN SIGHANIA Q Which among the following is/are correctly matched :Community Place1 Dangasia Gujarat2 Gond Madhya Pradesh3 Mirgan OdishaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DDangasia GujaratGond Madhya PradeshMirgan Odisha MOCK Q392 – FRAMED FROM SPECTRUM HISTORY Q BR Ambedkar is associated With Which of the following 1 Bahishkrita Hitkarini Sabha2 Hindu Mahasabha3 Hindu Code billSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 1C 2 amp 3D 123Ans ALala Lajpat Rai involvement with Hindu Mahasabha leaders gathered criticism from the Naujawan Bharat Sabha as the Mahasabhas were non-secular which did not conform with the system laid out by the Indian National CongressHindu MahasabhaMOCK Q391 – FRAMED FROM IUCN WEBSITE Q With reference to the Least Developed Countries Fund consider the following statements:1 This fund has been initiated in 2002 by the The Global Environment Facility GEF2 Adaptation amp Mitigation are one of the area of focus of this fundSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AThis fund has been initiated in 2002 by the The Global Environment Facility GEFAdaptation is one of the area of focus of this fundMOCK Q390 – FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTUREGOV Q Consider the following :Sites Place1 Aalampur Temple : Telanagana2 European Tomb : Gujarat3 Khajurao Monuments : Madhya PradeshSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 3C 2 amp 3D 123Ans D Other Important Sites :Maharaja Chhatrasal Museum Complex : Madhya PradeshMahabalipuram : Tamil NaduUparkot : GujaratKumarakom : KeralaMOCK Q389 – FRAMED FROM IUCN WEBSITE Q389 The Climate Chain Coalition CCC to support collaboration among members and stakeholders to advance blockchain and related digital solutions emerged at :A 2017 United Nations Climate Change ConferenceB One Planet SummitC COP-24 Katowice D Paris Climate SummitAn BThe Climate Chain Coalition CCC was born during the One Planet Summit in December in Paris France The Coalition engages a multi-stakeholder group working on distributed ledger technology DLT to collaborate on mobilizing climate financePlz Note : The 2017 United Nations Climate Change Conference was an international meeting of political leaders non-state actors and activists to discuss environmental issues It was held at UN Campus in Bonn from 6–17 November 2017 Also known as: COP23 UNFCCC CMP13 Kyoto Protocol CMA2 Paris AgreementMOCK Q388 – FRAMED FROM IUCN WEBSITE Q “Partnership for Market Readiness” is an initiative which is managed by the :A Global Environment FacilityB World BankC United Nation Environment ProgrammeD UNDPAns BPartnership for Market Readiness ADMINISTERED BY: The World BankAREA OF FOCUS Mitigation DATE OPERATIONAL: 2011MOCK Q387 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q387 With reference to the religious practices in India Sarvastivadin belongs to which ancient school A TheravadaB MahayanismC RajagirikarsD HetuvadinsAns ASarvāstivāda were an early school of Buddhism established around the reign of Asoka third century BCEIt was particularly known as an Abhidharma tradition with a unique set of seven Abhidharma worksMOCK Q386 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q386 With reference to the Initial Coin Offerings ICO consider the following statements :1 It is like Initial Public Offer that refers to the issue of cryptocurrency in consideration of funds received from investors2 17 billion has been raised globally through ICOs between 2014 amp 2017Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns A27 billion has been raised globally through ICOs between 2014 amp 2017- An initial coin offering ICO or initial currency offering is a type of funding using cryptocurrenciesMostly the process is done by crowdfunding but private ICO’s are becoming more common In an ICO a quantity of cryptocurrency is sold in the form of tokens coins to speculators or investors in exchange for legal tender or other cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin or Ethereum The tokens sold are promoted as future functional units of currency if or when the ICO’s funding goal is met and the project launches In some cases like Ethereum the tokens are required to use the system for its purposesAn ICO can be a source of capital for startup companiesMOCK Q385 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q385 Nanotechnology can significantly increase manufacturing at far reduced costs What are the advantages of the Nanotechnology 1 Anti scratch components of the automobiles are possible using the Nanotechnology2 Bullet proof amp stain resistant clothing can be made using the Nanotechnology3 Nanotechnology offer cleaner technologies amp cleaner environmentSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 2B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans ANano sized particles can acculumate in various body parts such as nasal cavities lungs amp brainDue to their minute size nano particles are able to accumulate in the environmentMOCK Q384 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With reference to the “India International Exchange” consider the following statements :1 It was opened very recently at the International Financial Services Centre IFSC in Gujarat2 With this it will be the third largest International Exchange in the world in terms of order responseSelect the correct answer using the using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D-It was opened IN 2017 at the International Financial Services Centre IFSC in GujaratBUT NOT VERY RECENTLY – With this it will be the fastest International Exchange in the world in terms of order response with the trade speed of four microseconds-This is better than BSE’s domestic exchange in Mumbai which has an order response time of six microseconds- Singapore is the second fastest International exchange has the order response of 60 microsecondsMOCK Q383 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q383 In Context with the “Bio-energy with carbon capture and storage BECCS” consider the following statements :1 It is a greenhouse gas mitigation technology which produces negative carbon dioxide emissions2 BECSS works by involving the process of pyrogenic carbon capture and storage PyCCS or biocharSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns A-Bio-energy with carbon capture and storage BECCS is a potential greenhouse gas mitigation technology which produces negative carbon dioxide emissions by combining bioenergy energy from biomass use with geologic carbon capture and storage1 The concept of BECCS is drawn from the integration of trees and crops which extract carbon dioxide CO2 from the atmosphere as they grow the use of this biomass in processing industries or power plants and the application of carbon capture and storage via CO2injection into geological formations2 There are other non-BECCS forms of carbon dioxide removal and storage that include technologies such as biochar carbon dioxide air captureand biomass burial3 and enhanced weatheringAccording to a recent Biorecro report there is 550 000 tonnes CO2/year in total BECCS capacity currently operating divided between three different facilities as of January 2012In the IPCC Fourth Assessment Report by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change IPCC BECCS was indicated as a key technology for reaching low carbon dioxide atmospheric concentration targets8 The negative emissions that can be produced by BECCS has been estimated by the Royal Society to be equivalent to a 50 to 150 ppmdecrease in global atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations9 and according to the International Energy Agency the BLUE map climate change mitigation scenario calls for more than 2 gigatonnes of negative CO2 emissions per year with BECCS in 205010 According to Stanford University 10 gigatonnes is achievable by this dateAccording to the OECD Achieving lower concentration targets 450 ppm depends significantly on the use of BECCS13An alternative to BECSS is pyrogenic carbon capture and storage PyCCS or biochar14 Which are superior in order to fix carbon in a more stable way: solid C for longer times Carbon dioxide injected into geologic formations eventually leaks back into the atmosphere due to seismic activity and natural faults and problems with the seal of the ancient injection pitsFRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q382 Consider the following :Tribes Place1 Bhoksa Uttarakhand2 Misting Sikkim3 Gonds Madhya PradeshSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 1 amp 2D 123Ans AMisting tribe is in AssamFRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q381 Which of the following best describes Forward linkages with respect to the economic activity 1 These refer to the transactions with the consumers2 For food processing industry these linkages are associated with the primary processing centresSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2 C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AForward linkages :-These refer to the transactions with the consumers- These linkages are associated with the retail storesBackward linkages :-These refer to the transactions with the suppliers-For food processing industry these linkages are associated with the primary processing centresFRAMED FROM LUCENT PUBLICATIONS Q380 Consider the following :Hill Ranges Place1 Rajpipla : Gujarat2 Mahadeo : Madhya Pradesh3 Maikala range : Andhra PradeshSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 1 amp 2D 123Ans CMaikala range : Madhya Pradesh amp ChhatisgarhFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q379 Consider the following statements :1 Loktak lake the biggest fresh water lake is home to the endangered Sangai deer2 Keibul Lamjao is an integral part of the Loktak LakeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CLok tak lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India and is famous for the phumdis heterogeneous mass of vegetation soil and organic matter at various stages of decomposition floating over it The lake is located near Moirang in Manipurstate IndiaThe etymology of Loktak is Lok stream and tak the endThe largest of all the phumdis covers an area of 40 km215 sq mi and is situated on the southeastern shore of the lake Located on this phumdi Keibul Lamjao National Park is the only floating national park in the world The park is the last natural refuge of the endangered Sangai state animal Rucervus eldii eldii or Manipur brown-antlered deer Cervus eldi eldi one of three subspecies of Eld’s deerThe Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in India It is 40 km2 154 sq mi in area the only floating park in the world located in North East India and an integral part of Loktak LakeThe national park is characterized by many floating decomposed plant materials locally called phumdis To preserve the natural refuge of the endangered Manipur Eld’s deer or brow-antlered deer Cervus eldi eldi or sangai also called the dancing deer listed as an endangered species by IUCN the park which was initially declared to be a sanctuary in 1966 was subsequently declared to be a national park in 1977 through a gazette notification The act has generated local support and public awarenessFRAMED FROM SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENTUNORG Q378 “Championing Green Growth and Climate Resilience” to promote green growth emerged at :A Global Green Growth InstituteB GreenpeaceC European Environment Agency D World Sustainable Development Summit 2011Ans AThe Global Green Growth Institute GGGI is a treaty-based international organization headquartered in Seoul South Korea The organization aims to promote green growth a growth paradigm that is characterized by a balance of economic growth and environmental sustainability GGGI provides research and stakeholder engagement for green growth plans especially in developing countries aiming to replace the more typical paradigm based on industrial developmentFounded to support green economic growth that simultaneously addresses poverty reduction job creation social inclusion and environmental sustainability GGGI works across four priority areas that are considered to be essential to transforming national economies including energy water land use and green citiesMotto Championing Green Growth and Climate ResilienceFormation 16 June 2010Headquarters Seoul Republic of KoreaMembership 30 Member countriesCouncil chair Ban Ki MoonDirector-General Frank RijsbermanBudget USD 55 million 2018Q377 The term “Climate Neutrality” sometimes mentioned in the news are related to :A World Wild life FundB UNFCCC SecretariatC Biocarbon FundD World wildlife TrustAns BThe UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015 The following year the secretariatlaunched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Nowas part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the worldThe UNFCCC secretariat UN Climate Change was established in 1992 when countries adopted the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change UNFCCCWith the subsequent adoption of the Kyoto Protocol in 1997 and the Paris Agreement in 2015 Parties to these three agreements have progressively reaffirmed the secretariat’s role as the United Nations entity tasked with supporting the global response to the threat of climate changeSince 1995 the secretariat is located in Bonn GermanyThe secretariat provides technical expertise and assists in the analysis and review of climate change information reported by Parties and in the implementation of the Kyoto mechanisms It also maintains the registry for Nationally Determined Contributions NDC established under the Paris Agreement a key aspect of implementation of the Paris AgreementThe secretariat organizes and supports between two and four negotiating sessions each year The largest and most important is the Conference of the Parties held annually and hosted in different locations around the globe It is the largest annual United Nations conference attended on average by around 25000 participants In addition to these major conferences the secretariat organizes annual sessions of the so-called subsidiary bodies as well as a large number of meetings and workshops throughout the yearIn recent years the secretariat also supports the Marrakech Partnership for Global Climate Action agreed by governments to signal that successful climate action requires strong support from a wide range of actors including regions cities business investors and all parts of civil society At UN Climate Change Conferences a large number of events demonstrate how non-Party stakeholders are working with governments and the UN system to implement the Paris AgreementFRAMED FROM NDC PARTNERSHIPORG Q376 With reference to the Special Climate Change Fund consider the following statements :1 It was established in 1991 under UNFCCC to finance projects which enable the adaptation to climate change2 It is operated by United Nation Environment Programme UNEP amp World Meteorological Organisation WMOSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DIt was established in 2001 under UNFCCC to finance projects which enable the adaptation to climate changeIt is operated by Global Environment Facility GEFEXPLANATION :In 2001 Parties to the UNFCCC established the Special Climate Change Fund SCCF to support climate change activities that are complementary to the GEF’s climate change projects with a special focus on the most vulnerable countries The objective of the Special Climate Change Fund SCCF is to support adaptation and technology transfer projects and programs that: are countryFRAMED FROM IUCNORG Q375 Which among the following country is not the member of the “Mangroves for The Future” A Cambodia B MyanmarC LaosD MaldivesAns CMangroves for the Future MFFLocation: Member countries: Bangladesh Cambodia India Indonesia Maldives Myanmar Pakistan Seychelles Sri Lanka Thailand and Vietnam Outreach countries: Malaysia Dialogue countries: Kenya and TanzaniaDuration: Established in 2006 MFF is currently in its third phase 2015 – 2018 Project Background: The devastation caused by the Indian Ocean tsunami of December 2004 laid bare the vital link between coastal ecosystems and human livelihoods It was United States President Bill Clinton’s vision that rebuilding in tsunami-hit areas should improve natural infrastructure and strengthen resilience against future natural disasters In response to this vision IUCN International Union for Conservation of Nature and the United Nations Development Programme UNDP developed Mangrovesfor the Future in 2006 Since then MFF has grown to include eight institutional partners plus a growing number of countries At the launch of the Tsunami Legacy report at the United Nations in New York in April 2009 Bill Clinton acclaimed MFF as one of the most positive and forward-looking developments of the post-tsunami periodMangroves for the Future MFF is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal ecosystem conservation for sustainable development Co-chaired by IUCN and UNDP MFF provides a platform for collaboration among the many different agencies sectors and countries which are addressing challenges to coastal ecosystem and livelihood issues The goal is to promote an integrated ocean-wide approach to coastal management and to building the resilience of ecosystem-dependent coastal communities Mangroves are the flagship of the initiative but MFF is inclusive of all types of coastal ecosystem such as coral reefs estuaries lagoons sandy beaches seagrass and wetlandsFRAMED FROM The Hindu Q374 Which among the following is/are classified under the Third Generation Vaccines 1 DTP vaccine2 DNA Vaccine3 Polio VaccineSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 3B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D Only 2Ans DDTP vaccine – Second generation VaccineDNA Vaccine- Third generation VaccinePolio Vaccine- First generation VaccineDNA vaccination is a technique for protecting against disease by injection with genetically engineered DNA so cells directly produce an antigen producing a protective immunological response DNA vaccines have potential advantages over conventional vaccines including the ability to induce a wider range of immune response typesSeveral DNA vaccines are available for veterinary use Currently no DNA vaccines have been approved for human use Research is investigating the approach for viral bacterial and parasitic diseases in humans as well as for several cancersApplicationsNo DNA vaccines have been approved for human use in the United States Few experimental trials have evoked a response strong enough to protect against disease and the technique’s usefulness remains to be proven in humans A veterinary DNA vaccine to protect horses from West Nile virus has been approvedFirst-Generation Vaccines Attenuated and inactivated vaccines are identified in the first generation which use a primary method in their production Attenuated pathogens full organisms or inactivated bacterial toxin which are effectively immunogenic are used in making these vaccines2nd Generation Vaccines:-The second generation vaccines were created in order to minimize the risks of having the pathogen revert to a dangerous formThe way these vaccines work is that they do not contain the whole organism but rather subunits Subunits may consist of the toxins that the pathogen create if they are bacterial Another example of subunit vaccines are those that only contain protein sections of the pathogen such as an acellular formA great example of a 2nd generation vaccine is DTaP The vaccine contains diptheria toxoid tetanus toxoid pertussis toxoid as well as the acellular version of pertussisAs with the issues with the 1st generation of vaccines the 2nd generation vaccines can generate antibody response and T-helper response but AGAIN no T-Killer responseFRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS Q373 Which among the following is/are the examples of The Near Field Communication 1 Public transport card readers2 Smart phones3 Touch payment terminalsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DNear-field communication NFC is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm 16 in of each other1NFC devices are used in contactless payment systems similar to those used in credit cards and electronic ticket smartcards and allow mobile payment to replace or supplement these systems This is sometimes referred to as NFC/CTLS Contactless or CTLS NFC NFC is used for social networking for sharing contacts photos videos or files2 NFC-enabled devices can act as electronic identity documents and keycards3 NFC offers a low-speed connection with simple setup that can be used to bootstrap more capable wireless connectionsFRAMED FROM SHANKAR ENVIRONMENT Q372 With respect to the Global Tiger Forum GTF consider the following statements :1 It is an international symposium to save Tigers in the world with support of South Asian Countries2 Headquarter of the GTF is located in India because India has the largest tiger population in the world Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns BGTF is an intergovernmental body to undertake worldwide campaign amp a common programme to save tigers in the worldInternational Symposium on Tiger held at New Delhi during February 1993 adopted a Delhi declaration on Tiger conservation Headquarter of the GTF is located in India because India has the largest tiger population in the world FRAMED FROM MAJID HUSSAIN’S INDIAN GEOGRAPHY Q371 Consider the following :1 Jai Samand Lake : Largest Artificial lake2 Pulicat lake : Has a largest number of islands within3 Vembanad lake : Largest KayalsWhich among the above is/are correctly matched A Only 2B 1 amp 3C 2 amp 3D 123Ans BExplanation :1Kolleru lake has the largest number of islands within Kolleru lake is formed between deltas of Godavari amp Krishna riversKolleru Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India located in state of Andhra Pradesh and formsthe largest shallow freshwater3 lake in Asia 15 kilometers away from the city of Eluru Kolleru is located between Krishna and Godavari deltas4 Kolleru spans into two districts – Krishna and West Godavari The lake is fed directly by water from the seasonal Budameru and Tammilerustreams and is connected to the Krishna and Godavari irrigation systems by over 67 major and minor irrigation canals This lake is a major tourist attraction Many birds migrate here in winter such as Siberian crane ibisand painted storks The lake was an important habitat for an estimated 20 million resident and migratorybirds including the grey or spot-billed pelican Pelecanus philippensis The lake was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in November 1999 under India’s Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 and designated a wetland of international importance in November 2002 under the international Ramsar Convention The wildlife sanctuary covers an area of 308 km2Egrets grey herons painted storks and black-headed ibises gathering in thousands at Kolleru Lake Andhra Pradesh IndiaKolleru Lake under Ramsar Convention allowing local communities Here: Vaddi Community to continue their occupation of culture fish and caught fish covers 90100 hectares 222600 acres and Kolleru Lake underWildlife Sanctuary covers 166000 acres 67200 ha2Pulicat lake : Pulicat Lagoon is the second largest brackish water lagoon in India after Chilika Lake Pulicat Lagoon is considered to be the second largest brackish water body in India measuring 759 km2 The Lagoon is one the three important wetlands to attract North-East Monsoon rain clouds during October to December season to Tamil Nadu The lagoon comprises the following regions which adds up 759 km2 according to Andhra Pradesh Forest Department: 1 Pulicat Lake Tamil Nadu-TN amp Andhra Pradesh-AP 2 Marshy/WetlandLand Region AP 3 Venadu Reserve Forest AP 4 Pernadu Reserve Forest AP The lagoon was cut across in the middle the Sriharikota Link Road which divided the water body into lake and marshy land The lake encompasses the Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary The barrier island of Sriharikota separates the lake from the Bay of Bengal and is home to the Satish Dhawan Space Centre1 Major part of the lake comes under Nellore district of Andhra pradesh3 Vembanad lake:Vembanad Vembanad Kayal or Vembanad Kol is the longest lake in India1 and the largest lake in the state of Kerala Spanning several districts in the state of Kerala it is known as Vembanadu Lake in Kottayam Punnamada Lake in Kuttanad and Kochi Lake in Kochi Several groups of small islands including Vypin Mulavukad Vallarpadam Willingdon Island are located in the Kochi Lake portion Kochi Port is built around the Willingdon Island and the Vallarpadam islandThe Nehru Trophy Boat Race is conducted in a portion of the lake High levels of pollution have been noticed at certain hotspots of the Vembanad backwaters Government of India has identified the Vembanad wetland under National Wetlands Conservation Programme4 Jai Samand Lake:Dhebar Lake also known as Jaisamand Lake is India’s second-largest artificial lake after Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar1 It is located in the Udaipur District of Rajasthan State in western India It has an area of 87 km2 34 sq mi when full and was created in the 17th century when Rana Jai Singh of Udaipur built a marble dam across the Gomati River It is about 450 km 280 mi from the district headquarters of Udaipur When first built it was the largest artificial lake in the world The surrounding Jaisamand Wildlife Sanctuary around Dhebar Lake can be reached by the state highway to Banswara from Udaipur It is about 270 km 168 mi from Parsad A village on National Highway No 8 Jaisamand Wildlife Sanctuary protects about 1620 square kilometres 16200 ha mostly teakforest on the shores of Dhebar Lake The lake has three islands measuring from 10 to 40 acres 40000 to 162000 m2 each The Dhebar Lake Marble Dam is 3000 m 9843 ft long and is a part of the Heritage Monuments of India The dam also has the Hawa Mahal Palace winter Capital of the erstwhile Maharanas of MewarFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -MAY 2018 Q370 With reference to the CLOUD ACT consider the following statements :1 It has been passed by the US Congress very recently to make artificial rain by spraying clouds with substances like Silver Iodide 2 US has enacted in 2018 by passing the Consolidated Appropriations ActSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns BCloud act – The Clarifying Lawful Overseas Use of Data CLOUD Act passed by the US Congress earlier this year seeks to de-monopolise control over data from US authorities The law will for the first time allow tech companies to share data directly with certain foreign governments This however requires an executive agreement between the US and the foreign country certifying that the state has robust privacy protections and respect for due process and the rule of law Before this Cloud Act an Indian officer investigating would have to raise a request for data to the US government where it is storedHow CLOUD act impacts law enforcement in India :- Timely access to electronic data for police is required to prevent mitigate or prosecute even a routine crime With the enactment of the CLOUD Act an Indian officer for the purposes of an investigation will no longer have to make a request to the US government but can approach the company directlyFRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS -AUGUST 2018 Q369 Which among the following is/are the expected benefits to a country by signing the pact of Duqm port in Oman 1 Port is located near the Persian Gulf through which half of the world’s oil tanker pass2 It has a special economic zone where 25 billion investments are expected to be made by the Indian companiesWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AIt has a special economic zone where 18 billion investments are expected to be made by the Indian companiesPort is located near the Persian Gulf through which half of the world’s oil tanker passIt is also near the Chabahar port of IranFRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS -AUGUST 2018 Q368 What is/are the consequence/ consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘European Bank for Reconstruction amp Development’ 1 Membership would provide access to the technical amp financial assistance of the bank related to the development of the private sector2 Co-financing opportunities access to the international markets will be enhanced through the membershipWhich of the statements given above is/are correctA 1 onlyB 2 onlyC Both 1 amp 2D Neither 1 nor 2 Ans BMembership would provide access to the technical assistance amp sectoral knowledge of the bank related to the development of the private sectorCo-financing opportunities access to the international markets will be enhanced through the membershipExplanation:The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development EBRD is an international financial institution founded in 1991 As a multilateral developmental investment bank the EBRD uses investment as a tool to build market economies Initially focused on the countries of the former Eastern Bloc it expanded to support development in more than 30 countries from central Europe to central Asia Similar to other multilateral development banks the EBRD has members from all over the world North America Africa Asia and Australia see below with the biggest shareholder being the United States but only lends regionally in its countries of operations Headquartered in London the EBRD is owned by 69 countries and two EU institutions 69th being Indiarecently in July 2018 Despite its public sector shareholders it invests in private enterprises together with commercial partnersThe EBRD is not to be confused with the European Investment Bank EIB which is owned by EU member states and is used to support EU policy EBRD is also distinct from the Council of Europe Development Bank CEBFRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS -AUGUST 2018 Q367 STARLINK refers to :A It is a research amp development project developed by Google X to provide internet access to rural amp remote areasB It is the solar powered drone launched by facebook to provide internet access to four billion people around the world C Any type of drone that can be controlled by the Microwave signals of high wavelengthD It is the planned constellation of satellites that would provide high speed global internet connectionAns DStarlink is a satellite constellation development project underway by SpaceX1 to develop a low-cost high-performance satellite bus and requisite customer ground transceivers to implement a new space-basedInternet communication system23 By 2017 SpaceX submitted regulatory filings to launch nearly 12000 satellites to orbit by the mid-2020s4SpaceX also plans to sell satellites that use a satellitebus that may be used for military5 scientific or exploratory purposes6 In November 2018 SpaceX received FCC approval to deploy 7518 broadband satellites in addition to the 4425 satellites that were approved in March 2018 Development began in 2015 and prototype test-flight satellites were launched on 22 February 2018Initial operation of the constellation could begin in 2020 with satellite deployment beginning mid 2019The SpaceX satellite development facility in Redmond Washington houses the research and development operations for the satellite Internet projectFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018 Q366 Which among the following sites have been identified for the development of Water Aerodromes 1 Wular lake2 Sabarmati river front3 Chilika lakeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 3C 2 amp 3D 123Ans CChilika lake IN Orissa Gujarat’s Sardar Sarovar Dam Sabarmati river front have been identified for the development of Water AerodromesFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018 Q365 Which among the following products have been classified into Minor Forest Products 1 Tamarind 2 Sandalwood3 Bamboo4 Cane5 Fuel amp TimberSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1345B 245C Only 2 amp 5D 134Ans DMajor Forest Produce and Minor Forest Products The Major Forest Products comprise Pulpwood SandalwoodSocial Forestry that incudes Fuel and Timber The Minor Forest Products include the items such as tamarind curry leaf Tendu Patta gallnut Cane Soapnut tree moss and now Bamboo alsoFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018 Q364 Consider the following :1 Magnetic Rheological Fluid Damper2 Macro encapsulation device for treatment of Diabetes3 Smartphone based Camera SensorWhich among the above projects have been developed under the Imprint-2 Initiative A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D Only 1Ans BMagnetic Rheological Fluid Damper Smartphone based Camera Sensor- are the projects of IMPRINT INITIATIVEFor details of the projects open the link : FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018 Q363 Which among the following have been accorded Geographical Indication status 1 Blue pottery of Jaipur2 Tirupati ladoos3 Mahabaleshwar Strawberry4 Nagpur OrangeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 124B 2 amp 4C 234D 1234Ans DFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q362 With reference to the news what is Blockchain Bond A It is the new debt instrument issued by World Bank by using ledger technology B It is a type of bond purchased by buyers interested in earning a revenue stream from the British pound or sterlingC Republic of Seychelles has launched the Bond a novel financing initiative which taps into capital markets to fund ocean-related environmental projectsD It is the bond issued outside India but denominated in Indian Rupees rather than the local currencyAns AThe World Bank is turning to blockchain to help it raise moneyThe international lender is planning to issue what it says is the world’s first global blockchainbond a notable mainstream endorsement of the emerging technologyBlockchain is best known as the technology underpinning bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies It serves as a digital record of financial transactionsThe World Bank has hired Commonwealth Bank of Australia CBAUF to manage the bond which is expected to raise as much as 100 million Australian dollars 73 millionFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q361 Which of the following best describes the term “Mobilise Your City” sometimes seen in news A It is an initiative to support three Indian cities to reduce Green House Gas emissionsB It is a part of Swacch Bharat Mission to make Indian cities clean C It is the Heat Action Plan adopted in Climate Change Conference to keep global average temperature below 20 CD It is an initiative to support Indian cities to reduce atmospheric pollution as a part of health initiativeAns AIndia and France sign an implementation agreement on “MOBILISE YOUR CITY” MYC European Union agrees to Euro 35 million for investments and technical assistance within the Mobilise Your City MYC programme in India MYC aims at supporting three pilot cities viz Nagpur Kochi and Ahmedabad for reduction of Green House Gas GHG emissions related to urban transportFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q360 With reference to the PISA Programme For International Student Assessment consider the following statements :1 PISA test introduced in the year 2000 by UNICEF United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund 2 The test is carried out once in every two yearsWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DPISA test introduced in the year 2000 by OECDThe test is carried out once in every three yearsThe Programme for International Student Assessment PISA is a worldwide study by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development OECD in member and non-member nations intended to evaluate educational systems by measuring 15-year-old school pupils’ scholastic performance on mathematics science and reading It was first performed in 2000 and then repeated every three years Its aim is to provide comparable data with a view to enabling countries to improve their education policies and outcomes It measures problem solving and cognition The 2015 version of the test was published on 6 December 2016FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q359 With reference to O-Smart scheme consider the following statements :1 It is the Earth Ministry’s scheme to address Ocean development activities 2 The scheme covers 16 sub projects with an overall cost of Rs 1700 croresWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AThe scheme covers 16 sub projects with an overall cost of Rs 1623 croresFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q358 Which among the following is/are modified Operational Guidelines for Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana 1 Only Perennial horticulture crops are included on pilot basis under the ambit of PMFBY 2 Farmers will be paid 11 interest by insurance companies Which of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D-Farmers will be paid 12 interest by insurance companies-State Governments will have to pay 12 interest for delay in release of state share of subsidy-It includes Perennial horticulture crops on pilot basis under the ambit of PMFBY -It provides add on coverage for crop loss -Release of upfront premium subsidy FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q357 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan jyoti Bima Yojana consider the following statements :1 It is a life insurance scheme which includes age between 18 to 50 years2 The annual premium of Rs12 will be paid by the Union government 3 The benefit includes Rs 2 lakhs in case of death due to any causeWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A 1 amp 3B Only 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans BPradhan Mantri Jeevan jyoti Bima Yojana is a accident insurance scheme which includes age between 18 to 50 yearsPradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana is a life insurance which includes age between 18 to 70 yearsPradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana : The annual premium of Rs12 will be paid by the Union government Pradhan Mantri Jeevan jyoti Bima Yojana : The annual premium of Rs330 will be paid by the Union government FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q356 Which among the following are mandatory to mention on the label of the food items as per regulations of Food Safety amp Standards Regulations Act2018 1Trans fats2 Sugar 3 Salt4 Genetically Engineered Goods / ingredients derived from GMO5 Folic acidWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A 145B 1234C 123D 12345Ans BThe Food Safety and Standards Authority of India FSSAI on August 17 2018 constituted a group of experts from health and nutrition sector to look into the issue of food labellingThe expert panel will be headed by B Sesikeran former director of National Institute of Nutrition NIN and comprises Hemalatha and Dr Nikhil Tandon The panel will study in detail the concerns of the industry and make recommendations The announcement regarding the constitution of the Committee was made by FSSAI CEO Pawan Kumar Agarwal while addressing a national consultation on the draft regulation on food labelling organised by the CUTS InternationalAgarwal also made it clear that Food Safety and Standards Authority of India FSSAI will go ahead with the labelling norms even if there is no full consensus on the matter after the panel’s suggestionsIn April 2018 the FSSAI had come out with the draft of ‘Food Safety and Standards Labelling and Display Regulations 2018’ that propose mandatory red-label marking on packaged food products containing high levels of fat sugar and saltHowever for now the government has put on hold these draft regulations following the concerns raised by stakeholdersDraft provisions of Food Safety and Standards Labelling and Display Regulations 2018• The draft regulations suggest for mandatory declaration by packaged food manufacturers about nutritional information such as calories total fat trans fat sugar and salt per serve on the front of the pack• The draft pitches for a colour code proposes that the high fats such as sugar and salt trans-fat and sodium content should be coloured as ‘red’ if the value of energy from total sugar or fat is more than 10 percent of the total energy in the 100 grams or 100 ml of the product • The colour coding will make it easier for consumers to know about the nutritional value of food products and will help them make choices as per their requirements • It also makes mandatory to label food stuffs as ‘Contains GMO/Ingredients derived from GMO’ if the items contain 5 percent or more Genetically Engineered GE ingredients • The nutritional information should also be provided in the form of bar codeFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q355 Consider the following statements with reference to the Great Pacific Garbage Patch that sometimes seen in news :1 It is a gyre of marine debris particles in the central North Pacific Ocean2 It is located from 135°E to 155°WWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AThe Great Pacific garbage patch also described as the Pacific trash vortex is a gyre of marine debris particles in the central North Pacific Ocean It is located roughly from 135°W to 155°W and 35°N to 42°NThe collection of plastic floating trash halfway between Hawaii and California extends over an indeterminate area of widely varying range depending on the degree of plastic concentration used to define itThe patch is characterized by exceptionally high relative pelagic concentrations of plastic chemical sludge and other debris that have been trapped by the currents of the North Pacific Gyre3 Despite the common public image of islands offloating rubbish its low density 4 particles per cubic meter prevents detection by satellite imagery or even by casual boaters or divers in the area It consists primarily of an increase in suspended often microscopic particles in the upper water columnThe patch is not easily seen from the sky because the plastic is dispersed over a large area Researchers from The Ocean Cleanup project claimed that the patch covers 16 million square kilometers The plastic concentration is estimated to be up to 100 kilograms per square kilometer in the center going down to 10 kilograms per square kilometer in the outer parts of the patch An estimated 80000 metric tons of plastic inhabit the patch totaling 18 trillion pieces 92 of the mass in the patch comes from objects larger than 05 centimetersResearch indicates that the patch is rapidly accumulatingA similar patch of floating plastic debris is found in the Atlantic Ocean called the North Atlantic garbage patchFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q354 Consider the following statements with reference to the Heritage Irrigation Structures that sometimes seen in news :1 These structures have been created to ease irrigation by creating partition between the acidic amp alkaline soil2 This scheme has excluded old operational irrigation structures Which of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DAt the 63rd meeting of International Executive Council IEC held at Adelaide Australia on 28 June 2012 President Gao Zhanyi suggested that a process for recognition of the historical irrigation structures on the lines of World Heritage Sites as recognized by UNESCO shall be initiated Accordingly a Task Team comprising of the following members was set up to work out objectives guidelines and procedures to select the historical irrigation structures The Scheme was discussed during the meeting of WG-HIST at 65th IEC meeting The members suggested changes in the scope of the Scheme The present Scheme has been revised and updated to include both the old operational irrigation structures as well as structures that have primarily archival value It is proposed that a historical irrigation and/or drainage structure fulfilling the criterion laid down in this document shall be recognized as “Heritage Irrigation Structure” HIS The nomination forms received by 30 June every year will be processed together and presented to the following Executive Council meeting after due processing Nominations are invited from ICID National Committees for selection of “World Heritage Irrigation Structures” WHIS thatincludes both old operational irrigation structures as well as those having an archival value A Task Team is set up every year to select historical drainage/drainage structures as received from various National Committees NCs to give recognition to the historical irrigation structures on the lines of World Heritage Sites as recognized by UNESCO National Committee can nominate more than one structure using separate nomination form for each Associated Members and non-member countries can nominate their structures through the neighboring active national committees or by submitting directly to the ICID Central OfficeFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q353 Which of the following best describes “MOVE” sometimes seen in news A It is the Global Mobility Summit organized by Niti Ayog to make Indian cities pollution freeB It is an Intergovernmental agreement on the National Redress Scheme for Institutional Child Sexual Abuse C It is the Global Mobility Summit organized by UNFCCC between the Commonwealth and the States on environment issuesD It is an inter governmental agreement for the promotion of political amp economic relations with the ASEANAns ATo showcase innovation and build a platform to shape the future of mobility NITI Aayog is proud to host the first Move Summit 2018 In New Delhi on 7th and 8th September 2018 stakeholders from across the sectors of mobility and transportation will gather to co-create a public interest framework to revolutionize transport Together government industry academia civil society and media will set the base for a transport system which is safe clean shared and connected and affordable accessible and inclusiveThe Move Summit will address these challenges through two major channels:THE CORE SUMMIT AND PARALLEL EVENTS It will help leverage a number of unique features of India’s mobility ecosystem:a Tremendous potential for a fundamental shiftb Low lock-in-effectc Scale and size d Frugal innovation ande Globally-recognized technological prowessThe Move Summit will seek to integrate India’s efforts around sustainable development urbanization clean energy and more through the unique lens of mobilityFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q352 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana consider the following statements :1 Institutional treatment is the part of this Scheme2 It will cover over 10 crore people for secondary amp tertiary care hospitalization 3 Members of the family should not be more than 5 to be eligible for the scheme Which of the statements given above is/are correct A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans B1st statement : Institution treatment means a hospital nursing facility or other It is a fabricated statement3rd statement : It is also wrong It is not the feature of this schemePrime Minister Narendra Modi launched ambitious Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana PMJAY under Ayushman Bharat umbrella at Ranchi Jharkhand The scheme aims to provide annual health insurance cover of Rs 5 lakh to 1074 crore beneficiary families ie over 50 crore beneficiaries across India It is touted as world’s largest healthcare scheme that will serve beneficiary population that equals 27-28 European countries and almost equal to population of Canada Mexico and US put together The scheme will become operational from September 25 2018 ie on birth anniversary of Deendayal Upadhyay FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -JUNE 2018 Q351 Which of the following best describes “RIMPAC” sometimes seen in news A It is a specialised agency of the United Nations responsible for regulating shippingB It is the world’s largest military exercise between United States amp South Korea C It is a naval ship that is built and primarily intended for naval warfareD It is the world’s largest international maritime warfare exercise administered by the United States Navy’s pacific fleetAns DRIMPAC the Rim of the Pacific Exercise is the world’s largest international maritime warfare exercise RIMPAC is held bienniallyduring June and July of even-numbered years from Honolulu Hawaii It is hosted and administered by the United States Navy’s Pacific Fleet headquartered at Pearl Harbor in conjunction with the Marine Corps the Coast Guard and Hawaii National Guard forces under the control of the Governor of Hawaii The US invites military forces from the Pacific Rim and beyond to participate With RIMPAC the United States Pacific Command seeks to enhance interoperability among Pacific Rim armed forces ostensibly as a means of promoting stability in the region to the benefit of all participating nations Described by the US Navy as a unique training opportunity that helps participants foster and sustain the cooperative relationships that are critical to ensuring the safety of sea lanes and security on the world’s oceansRIMPAC 2018On 23 May 2018 the Pentagon announced that it had disinvited China because of recent militarization of islands in the South China Sea after China had announced in January that it had been invitedThe PRC has previously attended RIMPAC 2014 amp 2016On 30 May 2018 the US Navy announced that the following navies would take part in the exercise FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -JUNE 2018 Q350 With reference to the “Polargap Project” consider the following statements :1 It is an international mission to capture data about the Earth’s electrical amp magnetic field2 This project is largely funded by the World bankWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DPolarGAP is an ambitious international mission to capture new and critical data about the Earth’s global gravity field Innovative radar systems and Lidar technologies will also be deployed from Twin Otter aircraft to fill the ‘data gap’ in measurements of surface elevation over the South Pole region south of 835°Two earth observing satellite missions GOCE and CryoSat 2 mounted by the European Space Agency ESA revolutionised scientists’ ability to ‘map’ the Earth’s global gravity field and monitor how Earth’s ice fields are responding to global change However because GOCE’s orbit did not cross the Poles there is a data gap at the South PoleThe PolarGAP project will collect new gravity data and combine them with datasets from other Antarctic missions to build the first accurately constrained global gravity model This is essential as global gravity data provide unique informationon mass distribution and transport in the Earth System linked to processes and changes in the Solid Earth hydrology cryosphere oceans and atmosphere Key applications of gravity data include geodetic studies levelling and mapping navigation GPS/GLONASS and satellite orbit planningFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -JULY 2018 Q349 Recently environment minister inaugurates advanced system of air quality “SAFAR” With reference to this project consider the following statements :1 It will monitor all the weather parameters like temperature wind speed amp wind direction 2 The system will also monitor existence of Benzene Methane amp TolueneWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AScienceamp Technology Earth Sciences Environment Forest amp Climate Change Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan unveiled a state-of-the-art Air Quality and Weather Forecast System– SAFAR System of Air Quality and Weather Forecastingat ChandniChowkin Delhi today The giant true colour LED display gives out real-time air quality index on 24×7 basis with colour coding alongwith 72-hour advance forecastThe system first of its kind in the country was developed indigenously in record time by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology Pune and operationalized by India Meteorological Department IMDThe minister said based on the Air Quality Index on a particular day Health advisory and related precaution will be notified to prepare citizens well in advance Dr Harsh Vardhan further added that in addition to monitoring and forecasting of regular air quality and weather parameters the ChandniChowk air quality station will also measure sun’s UV-Index and will provide measurement of online automatic ultrafine particles PM1 and Mercury both of which have direct relevance to human health Based on UVI skin advisories will be issued on display“Our mission model project SAFAR is implemented in four cities of India – Delhi Pune Mumbai and Ahmedabad as an operational service Accordingto a preliminary economic assessment of the benefits of the system if 5 of people suffering from air-pollution related diseases take advantage of the advisories and precautionsin Delhi alone it would result in a saving of nearly Rs 2500 crores in terms of health-related cost benefit” said Dr Harsh Vardhan addressing a large gathering at Town Hall in ChandniChowkThe system will be an integral part of India’s first Air Quality Early Warning System operational in Delhi and will strengthen the existing air quality network of SAFAR Central Pollution Control Board and Delhi Pollution Control CommitteeSAFAR will accelerate public awareness and preparedness of air pollution and weather extremes It will also lead to better understanding of linkages among emissions weather pollution and climate It will monitor all weather parameters like temperature rainfall humidity wind speed and wind directionIn addition to regular air quality parameters like PM25 PM10 Sulfur Dioxide Ozone Nitrogen Oxides Carbon Monoxide the system will also monitor the existence of Benzene Toluene and XyleneBesides health SAFAR system would benefit cost savings to several other sectors like agriculture aviation infrastructure disaster management skill tourism and many others which directly or indirectly get affected by air quality and weather FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q348 Which of the following best describes “Global Green Bond Partnership” sometimes seen in news A This partnership will spread catchment area over 689 sq km to provide water for irrigation to cities states regionsB These bonds are issued by world bank in partnership with the government bodies private organisations or individual scientists to increase forest cover C This partnership will support efforts of cities states regions corporations private companies to accelerate issuance of green bondsD These bonds are issued by world bank in partnership with the government bodies private organisations or individual scientists to provide precious water for paddy cropsAns CThe Global Green Bond Partnership GGBP launched at the Global Climate Action Summit GCAS This new partnership will support efforts of sub-national entities such as cities states and regions corporations and private companies and financial institutions to accelerate the issuance of green bondsThe founding members of the Global Green Bond Partnership GGBP include the World Bank IFC – a member of the World Bank Group Amundi European Investment Bank Climate Bonds Initiative Ceres ICLEI – Local Governments for Sustainability Global Covenant of Mayors for Climate amp Energy GCoM and the Low Emissions Development Strategies Global Partnership LEDS GPFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q347 With reference to the Price Deficiency Payment Scheme consider the following statements :1 It is proposed to cover all the oil seeds for which minimum support price is notified2 It does not involve any physical procurement of the crops3 All the payments will be done directly into registered bank account of the farmer Which of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 2B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans DThe Niti Aayog has released a three-year agenda for the Centre Of the several things it has touched upon one is agriculture with a focus on doubling farmers’ income The think-tank has recommended reforms in the APMC Act and tenancy laws and tweaks to the eNAM electronic National Agriculture Market It has also suggested ‘Price Deficiency Payment’ system to address the gaps in Minimum Support Price MSP based procurement of cropsWhat is itUnder Price Deficiency Payment farmers are proposed to be compensated for the difference between the government-announced MSPs for select crops and their actual market prices For crops such as rice and wheat where it is effective now MSP announcements will continue For other targeted crops price deficiency payments will be made However it has to be noted that there may be a cap on the extent to which the Centre will bridge the gap between MSP and market priceNiti Aayog has said that the farmer may be entitled to the difference up to say 10 per cent To avail this benefit eachfarmer would have to register with the nearest APMC mandi and report the total area sown The subsidy may be paid via Direct Benefit Transfer DBT into the farmer’s Aadhaar-linked bank accountWhy is it importantThe key benefit from the price deficiency payment is that it will reduce the need for the government to actually procure food crops transport and store them and then dispose of them under PDS The difference between the support and market prices can instead simply be paid in cash to the farmer Price deficiency payment can also keep India’s bill on food subsidies under check believes Niti Aayog India’s food subsidy schemes have frequently come under the WTO scanner Even in the meeting held in March this year there were questions raised on the minimum support price programmes for wheat sugarcane and pulses by the US EU and AustraliaThese countries see India’s procurement subsidies as trade-distorting In recent years the government has been seeing the accumulation of large food grain stocks in its godowns over and above the buffer requirement This entails storage and wastage costs that add on to the subsidy billFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q346 Recently Government has hiked customs duties of several items to curb imports of non-essential goods Which among the following items are exempted under the custom duty 1 E-cigarettes2 Aviation turbine fuel3 Decorative sheets4 Beeds amp BanglesWhich of the options given above is/are correct A 234B Only 1C 1 amp 3D Only 4Ans BCustom DutySno Item 1 Air Conditioner 2 Refrigerators3 Washing Machines Less than 10kg 4 Compressor for ACs Refrigerators 5 Speakers 6 Footwear 7 Radial car tyres 8 Non-industrial diamonds 9 Diamonds semi-processed 10 Lab grown diamonds 11 Cut polished coloured gem stones 12 Jewellery- precious metal or metal clad with precious metal 13 Goldsmith or Silversmith wares – precious metal or metal clad with precious metal 14 Shower bath bath sink wash basin of plastic 15 Plastic items- boxes case containers bottles insulated ware 16 Kitchenware tableware household items of plastic 17 Other plastic items- office stationary fitting for furniture decorative sheets statuettes beads and bangles18 Trunks suitcases brief cases travel bags and other bags 19 Aviation turbine fuel FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q345 With reference to the Price Support scheme consider the following statements :1 Physical procurement of the oilseeds pulses amp Copra will be done by NAFED amp Food Corporation of India2 Procurement expenditure amp losses due to procurement will be borne by the State governmentWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAnsAProcurement expenditure amp losses due to procurement will be borne by the Union government as per normsPhysical procurement of the oilseeds pulses amp Copra will be done by Central Nodal agencies with the proactive role of the State governments FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q344 India has recently signed COMCASA Agreement What is/are the consequence/consequences for India by signing the agreement 1 It allows the India to transfer electronic systems amp ensure secrecy of its C4ISR systems2 By signing the agreement India would have to buy American Military equipmentWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D-It allows the US to transfer high tech electronic systems amp ensure secrecy of its C4ISR Command Control Communications Computers Intelligence Surveillance amp Reconnaissance systems-By signing the agreement It is not mean that India would have to necessarily buy American Military equipmentExplanation :It is one of the three foundational defence pacts that needs to be signed by a country in order to obtain high-tech military hardware from the US Before COMCASA India had signed only one of these agreements – Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement LEMOA – in 2016 The two countries are yet to begin talks on the third agreement – Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geo-spatial Cooperation BECA2 The agreement will give Indian military access to function on high-end secured and encrypted communication equipment which are installed on American platforms obtained by Indian Armed Forces These platforms include C-130 J C-17 P-8I aircraft and Apache and Chinook helicopters3 The act is usually known as the Communication and Information on Security Memorandum of Agreement CISMOA But it was changed to COMCASA to signify its India-specific alterations4 It will also provide a legal framework for the transfer of encrypted communication security equipment from the US to India It is believed to be safer and more secure than the system that India uses right now “Signing of Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement COMCASA will enable India to access advanced technologies from USA” Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said while addressing the media5 The agreement was pending for almost ten years One of the major reasons for this was the fear that India may compromise its operational independence Critics had also pointed out that the agreement could jeopardise India’s established military ties with Russia and access to their weapons systemsThe agreement is also of political significance with the general elections scheduled to take place next year In 2016 the BJP government had to face a lot of criticism from the opposition parties for signing LEMOAThese agreements and Donald Trump administration’s decision to give India STA-1 status Strategic Trade Authorization-1 shows the country’s importance in the US strategic calculus“We’ll be meeting PM Modi on how to advance relationship in the new era of growth under his leadership and President Trump We had many productive and forward thinking conversations on our bilateral relationship and our shared future” Pompeo said after ‘22’ talksFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q343 Currently India is a member of which among the following organizations / groups 1 Missile Technology Control Regime2 Australia Group3 Wassenaar Arrangement4 Nuclear Suppler GroupWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 2 amp 3B 234C Only 1 amp 2D 123Ans DSome countries are opposing the Indian entry into NSG because India has not signed the Non-Proliferation Treaty NPTQ342 With respect to the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana which among the following is NOT correctA It is a social welfare scheme to provide LPG connections in BPL householdsB The scheme was launched in the year 2015C The Government has set a target of 5 crores LPG connections under the YojanaD The objective of the scheme is to safeguard the health of women and children by providing them with clean cooking fuelAns B- The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana PMUY is a welfare program of the government of India launched by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2016The stated objective of the program is providing 50000000 LPG connections to women from families below the poverty lineFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ341 Which among the following is/are correctly matched 1 COP 11 : Minimata convention on mercury2 COP 3 : Kyoto protocol on climate change3 COP 1 : Montreal ProtocolSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 3C 2 amp 3D Only 2Ans BCOP-4 conference in Buenos COP 3 : Kyoto protocol on climate changegtCOP 11 : Montreal It took place between 28 November and 9 December 2005 in Montreal Quebec Canada It was the first Meeting of the Parties CMP 1 to the Kyoto Protocol since their initial meeting in Kyoto in 1997 It was one of the largest intergovernmental conferences on climate change ever gtCOP1 : Minimata convention on mercuryFRAMED FROM MAP SECTION Q340 Consider the following :1 Rajpipla range : Rajasthan2 Suket hills : Himachal Pradesh3 Kali river : DelhiSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 123D 2 amp 3Ans BRajpipla range : GujaratKali river : Source : Doon valley in UttarakhandFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q339 Which of the following is/are true with respect to the petroleum Panchayat yojna 1 It has replaced Pradhan Mantri Ujwal Yojana to deal with issue of safe use of LPG2 It was launched in 20153 Availability of refill cylinders is one of the key feature of this schemeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D Only 3Ans DIt was launched in 23rd September 2017It is backup scheme to existing Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana LPG Panchayat will serve as an interactive platform between those who received LPG cylinders under PMUY One panchayat will have around 100 LPG customers of nearby areas The panchayats discuss issues such as safe practices quality of service provided by distributors and availability of refill cylindersFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q338 Which among the following species is/are the examples of the Waterfowl 1 Wood Sandpiper2 Little cormorant3 Painted StorkSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B Only 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans D The most common waterfowl are :Gadwall shoveler common teal cotton teal tufted duck knob-billed duck little cormorant great cormorant Indian shag ruff painted stork white spoonbill Asian open-billed stork oriental ibis darter common sandpiper wood sandpiper and green sandpiper The sarus crane with its spectacular courtship dance is also found hereFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q337 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the Special Drawing Rights 1 These are the foreign-exchange reserve assets defined and maintained by the World Bank 2 Private parties are restricted to hold or use them3 South African Rand amp British pound have been added to the XDR basket effectively from October 1 2016Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 3C 2 amp 3D Only 2Ans DSpecial drawing rights ISO 4217 currency code XDR1 also abbreviated SDR are supplementary foreign-exchange reserve assets defined and maintained by the International Monetary Fund IMF The XDR is the unit of account for the IMF and is not a currency per se2 XDRs instead represent a claim to currency held by IMF member countries for which they may be exchanged3 The XDR was created in 1969 to supplement a shortfall of preferred foreign-exchange reserve assets namely gold and the US dollar3XDRs are allocated to countries by the IMF3 Private parties do not hold or use them4 The amount of XDRs in existence was around XDR 214 billion in August 2009 During the global financial crisis of 2009 an additional XDR 1826 billion were allocated to provide liquidity to the global economic system and supplement member countries’ official reserves By October 2014 the amount of XDRs in existence was XDR 204 billion5The value of the XDR is based on a basket of key international currencies reviewed by IMF every five years3 The weights assigned to each currency in the XDR basket are adjusted to take into account their current prominence in terms of international trade and national foreign exchange reserves3 In the review conducted in November 2015 the IMF decided that the Renminbi Chinese yuan would be added to the basket effective October 1 20166 From that date the XDR basket now consists of the following five currencies: US dollar 4173 Euro 3093 Renminbi Chinese yuan 1092 Japanese yen 833 British pound 809FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q336 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana 1 it is an annual scholarships to children of Standard VI to IX having good academic records only2 Philately as a hobby is an important component of this scheme3 Children must be between 10 to 18 years of age to be eligible for this schemeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B Only 3C 1 amp 2D Only 2Ans DDeen Dayal Sparsh YojanaMinister of Communications Shri Manoj Sinha launched a Pan India scholarship program for school children called Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana to increase the reach of Philately Under the scheme of SPARSH Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude amp Research in Stamps as a Hobby it is proposed to award annual scholarships to children of Standard VI to IX having good academic record and also pursuing Philately as a hobby through a competitive selection process in all postal circles Briefing the media after the launch of the scheme Shri Sinha said that under the scheme it is proposed to award 920 scholarships to students pursuing Philately as a hobby Every Postal Circle will select a maximum of 40 scholarships representing 10 students each from Standard VI VII VIII amp IX The amount of Scholarship will be Rs 6000/- per annum Rs 500/- per monthPhilately is the hobby of collection and study of Postage stampsFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q335 Which among the following is/are the cryptocurrencies 1 Litecoin2 Bitcoin3 NamecoinSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 1 amp 2D 123Ans Dcryptocurrencies such as Litecoin Namecoin and PPCoinThe first cryptocurrency to capture the public imagination was Bitcoin which was launched in 2009 by an individual or group known under the pseudonym Satoshi Nakamoto As of September 2015 there were over 146 million bitcoins in circulation with a total market value of 34 billion Bitcoin’s success has spawned a number of competing cryptocurrencies such as Litecoin Namecoin and PPCoinCryptocurrencies make it easier to transfer funds between two parties in a transaction these transfers are facilitated through the use of public and private keys for security purposesThese fund transfers are done with minimal processing fees allowing users to avoid the steep fees charged by most banks and financial institutions for wire transfersFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q334 With reference to the news what are Bug Zappers A It is is a bio-remediation technique to get rid of oil spillB These are the fluorescent traps to eliminate bugs amp small insectsC These are the tools or methods to reduce the greenhouse gases D These are the Ultraviolet traps to eliminate various small flying insectsAns DUltraviolet traps called bug zappers are used to eliminate various small flying insects They are attracted to the UV and are killed using an electric shock or trapped once they come into contact with the device FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q333 Which among the following are the migratory wetland species 1 White-bellied Heron2 Siberian Crane3 Red-headed Vulture4 Spoon-billed SandpiperSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 4B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 2 amp 4Ans DMigratory wetland species: Baer’s Pochard Siberian Crane and Spoon-billed Sandpiper Non-migratory wetland species: White-bellied Heron Grassland species:Bengal Florican Great Indian Bustard Jerdon’s Courser and Sociable Lapwing Forest species:Forest Owlet Scavengers: Indian Vulture Red-headed Vulture White-backed Vulture and Slender-billed Vulture Himalayan Quail and Pink-headed Duck are now considered Extinct for all practical purposesFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q332 With reference to the CITES what are Appendix II species A species that are listed after one member country has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling trade in a speciesB species that are threatened with extinction and are or may be affected by tradeC species that are not necessarily threatened with extinction but may become so unless trade in specimens of such speciesD Species that are preserved under the biosphere reserves to prevent their extinctionAns CAppendix I : species that are threatened with extinction and are or may be affected by tradeAppendix II : species that are not necessarily threatened with extinction but may become so unless trade in specimens of such speciesAppendix III : species that are listed after one member country has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling trade in a speciesFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q331 What does Hedge Fund means A Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industriesB Open ended funds that pools capital from accredited individuals or institutional investorsC Start-up capital provided to new entrepreneursD Fund created by the Government of India for enhancing infrastructure financing in the countryAns BHedge Funds :A hedge fund is an investment fund that pools capital from accredited individuals or institutional investors and invests in a variety of assets often with complex portfolio-construction and risk-management techniquesIt is administered by a professional investment management firm and often structured as a limited partnership limited liability company or similar vehicleHedge funds are generally distinct from mutual funds as their use of leverage is not capped by regulators and distinct from private equity funds as the majority of hedge funds invest in relatively liquid assetsHedge funds are made available only to certain sophisticated or accredited investors and cannot be offered or sold to the general publicHedge funds are almost always open-ended and allow additions or withdrawals by their investors generally on a monthly or quarterly basis1 The value of an investor’s holding is directly related to the fund net asset valueFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q330 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Vernacular Press Act 1 The Act provided for submitting to police all the proof sheets of contents of papers before publication2 Final decision on the seditious news was to be determined by the Judiciary Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AVernacular press act:It was enacted to curtail the freedom of the Indian press and prevent the expression of criticism toward British policies—notably the opposition that had grown with the outset of the Second Anglo-Afghan War 1878–80The act was proposed by Lord Lytton then Viceroy of India and was unanimously passed by the Viceroy’s Council on March 14 1878 The act excluded English-language publications as it was meant to control seditious writing in ‘publications in Oriental languages’ everywhere in the country except for the SouthLord Wellesley regulated the press again in 1799 according to which press had to show and get approval of the government before the publication of any manuscript including advertisement During the Indian Rebellion of 1857 the Gagging Act” had been passed by Lord Canning which sought to regulate the establishment of printing presses and to restrain the mad of printed mater All presses had to have a license from the government with distinction between publications in English and other regional languages The Act also held that no printed material shall impugn the motives of the British Raj tending to bring it hatred and contempt and exciting unlawful resistance to its ordersAt the time the Vernacular Press Act was passed there were thirty five vernacular papers in Bengal including the Amrita Bazar Patrika the editor of which was one Sisir Kumar GhoseThe Vernacular Press Act stated that any magistrate or Commissioner of Police had the authority to call upon any printer or publisher of a newspaper to enter into a bond undertaking not to print a certain kind of material and could confiscate any printed material it deemed objectionable The Act provided for submitting to police all the proof sheets of contents of papers before publication What was seditious news was to be determined by the police and not by the judiciaryFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q329 Who among the following is/are associated with the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha 1 G SubramaniaIyer2 Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi3 P AnandacharluSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 1 amp 2Ans BPoona Sarvajanik Sabha:It was a sociopolitical organisation in British India which started with the aim of working as a mediating body between the government and people of India and to popularise the peasants’ legal rights1 2 It started as an elected body of 95 members elected by 6000 persons on April 2 1870The Pune Sarvajanik Sabha provided many of the prominent leaders of national stature to the Indian freedom struggle including Bal Gangadhar Tilak It was formed in 1870 by S H Chiplunkar Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi Mahadev Govind Ranade et alMany eminent personalities such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak Gopal Hari Deshmukh Maharshi Annasaheb Patwardhan5 etc served as the Presidents of the organizationMadras Mahajan Sabha:The first organisation in the Madras Presidency to agitate for the rights of Indians was the Madras Native Association which was established by publicist GazuluLakshminarasu Chetty in 1849 This organisation did not survive for long and was eventually disbandedIn May 1884 M Veeraraghavachariar G SubramaniaIyer and P Anandacharlu established the Madras Mahajana SabhaFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q328 Consider the following statements :1 Deposition of iron-rich dust into ocean waters enhances carbon sequestration2 Biochar is added to a landfill or used as a soil improver to create terra preta3 Harvesting of Seeweed is done to generate electricity or as a replacement for natural gasSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DCarbon SequestrationCarbon sequestration is the process involved in carbon capture and the long-term storage of atmospheric carbon dioxide1 Carbon sequestration involves long-term storage of carbon dioxide or other forms of carbon to mitigate or defer global warming It has been proposed as a way to slow the atmospheric and marine accumulation of greenhouse gases which are released by burning fossil fuels artificial capture and sequestration of industrially produced CO2 using subsurface saline aquifers reservoirs ocean water aging oil fields or other carbon sinksCarbon dioxide may be captured as a pure by-product in processes related to petroleum refining or from flue gases from power generation5 CO2 sequestration includes the storage part of carbon capture and storage which refers to large-scale artificial capture and sequestration of industrially produced CO2 using subsurface saline aquifers reservoirs ocean water aging oil fields or other carbon sinksBiosequestration or carbon sequestration through biological processes affects the global carbon cycle Examples include major climatic fluctuations such as the Azolla event which created the current Arctic climate Such processes created fossil fuels as well as clathrate and limestone By manipulating such processes geoengineers seek to enhance sequestrationPeat bogs are a very important carbon store Wetland soil is an important carbon sink 145 of the world’s soil carbon is found in wetlands while only 6 of the world’s land is composed of wetlandsOcean iron fertilization is an example of such a geoengineering technique23 Iron fertilization24 attempts to encourage phytoplankton growth which removes carbon from the atmosphere for at least a period of timeNatural iron fertilisation events eg deposition of iron-rich dust into ocean waters can enhance carbon sequestration The iron rich feces causes phytoplankton to grow and take up more carbon from the atmosphereWhen the phytoplankton dies some of it sinks to the deep ocean and takes the atmospheric carbon with it By reducing the abundance of sperm whales in the Southern Ocean whaling has resulted in an extra 200000 tonnes of carbon remaining in the atmosphere each year’Seaweed grows very fast and can theoretically be harvested and processed to generate biomethane via Anaerobic Digestion to generate electricity via Cogeneration/CHP or as a replacement for natural gas Ideal species for such farming and conversion include Laminaria digitata Fucus serratus and Saccharina latissimaBio-energy with carbon capture and storage BECCS‘BECCS refers to biomass in power stations and boilers that use carbon capture and storageBiochar is charcoal created by pyrolysis of biomass waste The resulting material is added to a landfill or used as a soil improver to create terra pretaFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q327 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the CITES 1 CITES is the conservation agreement with the largest membership with 183 Parties2 It is legally binding on the PartiesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CCITES the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora is an international agreement between governments Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survivalIt was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of IUCNIt provides a framework to be respected by each Party which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national levelFor many years CITES has been among the conservation agreements with the largest membership with now 183 PartiesCITES is legally binding on the PartiesFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q326 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Bronze icon of Nataraja 1 The classical form of the depiction appears in stone reliefs by around the 6th-century2 Torso movements are visible as the most common form of Shiva’s dance 3 It typically shows Shiva dancing holding Agni fire in his left back hand the front hand in gajahasta or dandahasta mudraSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 3B 2 amp 3C Only 1D 1 amp 3Ans DBronze icon of NatarajaAffiliation Shiva SymbolsAgni TextsAnshumadbhed agamaUttarakamika agamaThe classical form of the depiction appears in stone reliefs as at the Ellora Caves and the Badami Caves by around the 6th-century45 Around the 10th century it emerged in Tamil Nadu in its mature and best-known expression in Chola bronzes of various heights typically less than four feet6 some over7 The Nataraja reliefs have been identified in historic artwork from many parts of South Asia in southeast Asia such as in Bali Cambodia and in central AsiaIt typically shows Shiva dancing in one of the Natya Shastra poses holding Agni fire in his left back hand the front hand in gajahasta or dandahasta mudra the front right hand with a wrapped snake that is in abhaya fear not mudra while pointing to a Sutratext and the back hand holding a musical instrument usually a damaru6 His body fingers ankles neck face head ear lobes and dress are shown decorated with symbolic items which vary with historic period and region111 He is surrounded by a ring of flames standing on a lotus pedestal lifting his left leg or in rare cases the right leg and balancing over a demon shown as a dwarf Apasmara2 or Muyalaka who symbolizes ignoranceThe dance of Shiva in Tillai the traditional name for Chidambaram forms the motif for all the depictions of Shiva as Nataraja He is also known as Sabesan which splits as Sabayil aadum eesan in Tamil which means The Lord who dances on the dais The two most common forms of Shiva’s dance are the Lasya the gentle form of dance associated with the creation of the world and the Tandava the violent and dangerous dance associated with the destruction of weary worldviews – weary perspectives and lifestyles• The arch of fire emerges from two makara on each end which are water creatures of water and part of Hindu mythologies • • The upper right hand holds a small drum shaped like an hourglass that is called a ḍamaru in Sanskrit2728 A specific hand gesture mudra called ḍamaru-hasta Sanskrit for ḍamaru-hand is used to hold the drum• • His legs are bent which suggests an energetic dance• The second left hand points towards the raised foot which suggests the viewer to be active and dance despite the circumstances or alternatively as a sign of upliftment and liberation• • The face shows two eyes plus a slightly open third on the forehead which symbolize the triune in Shaivism The Asanapat inscription also mentions a Shiva temple in the Saivacaryas kingdomStone reliefs depicting the classical form of Nataraja are found in numerous cave temples of India such as the Ellora Caves Maharashtra the Elephanta Caves and the Badami Caves Karnataka by around the 6th-centuryNataraja is celebrated in 108 poses of Bharatanatyam with Sanskrit inscriptions from Natya Shastra at the Nataraja temple in Chidambaram Tamil Nadu IndiaFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q325 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana 1 It is a Pension Scheme for the senior citizens aged 70 years and above2 The scheme is exempted from Service Tax/ GST3 On Premature exit 100 of the Purchase Price shall be refundedSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D Only 3Ans BPradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana PMVVY is a Pension Scheme announced by the Government of India exclusively for the senior citizens aged 60 years and above which is available from 4th May 2017 to 3rd May 2018Following are the major benefits under the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana PMVVY:• Scheme provides an assured return of 8 pa payable monthly equivalent to 830 pa effective for 10 years• Pension is payable at the end of each period during the policy term of 10 years as per the frequency of monthly/ quarterly/ half-yearly/ yearly as chosen by the pensioner at the time of purchase• The scheme is exempted from Service Tax/ GST• On survival of the pensioner to the end of the policy term of 10 years Purchase price along with final pension installment shall be payable• Loan upto 75 of Purchase Price shall be allowed after 3 policy years to meet the liquidity needs Loan interest shall be recovered from the pension installments and loan to be recovered from claim proceeds• The scheme also allows for premature exit for the treatment of any critical/ terminal illness of self or spouse On such premature exit 98 of the Purchase Price shall be refunded• On death of the pensioner during the policy term of 10 years the Purchase Price shall be paid to the beneficiary• The ceiling of maximum pension is for a family as a whole the family will comprise of pensioner his/her spouse and dependants• The shortfall owing to the difference between the interest guaranteed and the actual interest earned and the expenses relating to administration shall be subsidized by the Government of India and reimbursed to the CorporationEligibility Conditions and Other Restrictions1 Minimum Entry Age: 60 years completed2 Maximum Entry Age: No limit3 Policy Term : 10 years4 Minimum Pension: Rs 1000/- per monthRs 3000/- per quarterRs6000/- per half-yearRs12000/- per year5 Maximum Pension: Rs 5000/- per monthRs 15000/- per quarterRs 30000/- per half-yearRs 60000/- per yearThe modes of pension payment are monthly quarterly half-yearly amp yearly The pension payment shall be through NEFT or Aadhaar Enabled Payment SystemThe first instalment of pension shall be paid after 1 year 6 months 3 months or 1 month from the date of purchase of the same depending on the mode of pension payment ie yearly half-yearly quarterly or monthly respectivelyFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ324 With reference to the incarnation of the Buddhas what does Ruru Jataka signifies A It is the tale of the three friends who lived in a forest: an antelope a woodpecker and a tortoiseB It is the story of The dumb Prince that is also known as Muga Pakaya JatakaC In this jataka tale the Buddha in a previous incarnation as a monkey king self-sacrifyinly offers his own body as a bridge by which his fellow monkeys can escape from a human king who is attacking themD is the story of how a past incarnation of the Buddha incarnated as a golden deer rescues a merchant from drowning in the riverAns DMahakapi Jataka : In this jataka tale the Buddha in a previous incarnation as a monkey king self-sacrifyinly offers his own body as a bridge by which his fellow monkeys can escape from a human king who is attacking them Ruru Jataka :The Ruru Jataka is the story of how a past incarnation of the Buddha incarnated as a golden deer rescues a merchant from drowning in the river bottom of medallionKurunga Miga Jataka :This story is about three friends who lived in a forest: an antelope a woodpecker and a tortoise Muga Pakaya Jataka/ Mugapakkha Jataka/ Temiya Jataka : This is the story of The dumb PrinceFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ323 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the GSF certification Gold standard foundation certificate 1 It is a standard for creating high-quality emission reductions projects in the Clean Development Mechanism CDM2 It was developed in 2003 by World Wide Fund for Nature WWF and Helio International onlySelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D GSF Gold standard foundation certificate certificationThe Gold Standard is a standard for creating high-quality emission reductions projects in the Clean Development Mechanism CDM Joint Implementation JI and Voluntary Carbon Market It was designed to ensure that carbon credits are not only real and verifiable but that they make measurable contributions to sustainable development worldwide Its objective is to add branding a label to existing and new Carbon Credits generated by projects which can then be bought and traded by countries that have a binding legal commitment according to the Kyoto ProtocolThe Gold Standard for CDM GS CER was developed in 2003 by World Wide Fund for Nature WWF SouthSouthNorth and Helio International The Voluntary Gold StandardGS VER a methodology for use within the voluntary carbon market was launched in May 2006To be eligible for Gold Standard Certification a project must:1 Be an approved Renewable Energy Supply or End use Energy Efficiency Improvement project type2 Be reducing one of the three eligible Green House Gases: Carbon Dioxide CO2 Methane CH4 and Nitrous Oxide N2O3 Not employ Official Development Assistance ODA under the condition that the credits coming out of the project are transferred to the donor country4 Not be applying for other certifications to ensure there is no double counting of credits5 Demonstrate its additionality by using the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’s UNFCCC Large Scale Additionality Tool6 and show that the project is not a ‘business-as-usual’ scenario6 Make a net-positive contribution to the economic environmental and social welfare of the local population that hosts itFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ322 Consider the following statements :1 Barail range is an eastern extension of the Himalayan Range System in north eastern India2 The Garo Khasi and Jaintia hills are part of Deccan Plateau and not part of the Purvanchal rangeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CBarail range :The Purvanchal Mountains or Eastern Mountains are a sub-mountain range of the Himalayas in northeast IndiaThe Purvanchal Mountains cover the states of Assam Arunachal Pradesh Manipur Tripura Nagaland Meghalaya and MizoramThe range is an eastern extension of the Himalayan Range System in north eastern India It bends sharply to the south beyond the Dihang River gorge and spreads along the eastern boundary of India with Myanmar The Purvanchal range includes the hill ranges of the Patkai Barail range Manipur Mizoram Mizodisambiguation needed and Naga HillsThe Garo Khasi and Jaintia hills are part of Deccan Plateau and not part of the Purvanchal rangeFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ321 Which among the following protocols employed the principle of differential treatment in respect to climate change 1 Washington Naval Treaty2 Cartagena Protocol3 Part IV of General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade GATTSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans ACommon but Differentiated responsibilities amp respective capabilities :Common But Differentiated Responsibilities CBDR was formalized in United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change UNFCCC of Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro 1992 It was the first international legal instrument to address climate change and the most comprehensive international attempt to address negative impacts to global environment3 CBDR principle acknowledges all states have shared obligation to address environmental destruction but denies equal responsibility of all states with regard to environmental protectionCBDR is based on relationship between industrialization and climate changeCBDR was not the first differential treatments of countries in international agreements There were other protocols agreements that employed principle of differential treatment• Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone layer Montreal Protocol• • Washington Naval Treaty• Part IV of General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade GATT 19799• principle 23 of Declaration of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment 1972FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ320 Recently a national park has been set up in the Sipahijola Wildlife Sanctuary where clouded leopards are kept in enclosures in a zoological park Where this wildlife sanctuary is located A MeghalayaB TripuraC SikkimD Arunachal PradeshAns BFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ319 Recently in the news there was a term Superbugs What is this A These are the microorganism that are essential for the vital functions of the bodyB These are the enzymes that makes bacteria resistant to broad range of beta-lactam antibioticsC These are the bacteria that causes infection which is difficult to treatD These are the super weeds that are essential in the treatment of less fertile soilsAns CNew Delhi Metallo-beta-lactamase-1 NDM-1 is an enzyme that makes bacteria resistant to a broad range of beta-lactam antibiotics These include the antibiotics of the carbapenem family which are a mainstay for the treatment of antibiotic-resistant bacterial infections The gene for NDM-1 is one member of a large gene family that encodes beta-lactamase enzymes called carbapenemases Bacteria that produce carbapenemases are often referred to in the news media as superbugs because infections caused by them are difficult to treat Such bacteria are usually susceptible only to polymyxins and tigecyclineThe most common bacteria that make this enzyme are gram-negative such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae but the gene for NDM-1 can spread from one strain of bacteria to another by horizontal gene transferFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ318 With reference to the ancient Pandu caves consider the following statements:1 These caves depicts the characters of the Pandavas of the Mahabharata epic2 They are a significant group of Indian rock-cut architecture representing the Hinayana tradition 3 These are a group of 22 caves carved between the 1st century BCE and the 3nd century CESelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D Only 3Ans BPandav Caves:Pandu Caves or Trirashmi Leni Leni being a Marathi word for caves are a group of 24 caves carved between the 1st century BCE and the 3nd century CE though additional sculptures were added up to about the 6th century reflecting changes in Buddhist devotional practicesThey are a significant group of early examples of Indian rock-cut architecture initially representing the so-called Hinayana tradition Most of the caves are viharas except for Cave 18 which is a chaitya of the 1st century BCEThe location of the caves is a holy Buddhist site and is located about 8 km south of the center of Nashik or Nasik Maharashtra IndiaTheir name has nothing to do with the characters Pandavas characters in the Mahabharata epicFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ317 For which among the following purpose National Water Resource Council has been constituted A It is an international thin tank established in 1996 to promote awareness build political commitment and trigger action on critical water issues at all levelsB To advise the Prime Minister on expenditure of the Australian Government Water Fund between 2004 and 2010C To resolve the water disputes that would arise in the use control and distribution of an interstate riverD It is a non-profit organization that drives economic technology and talent development to support the global water industryAns BNational Water Resource CouncilDissolved 25 November 2014Jurisdiction Commonwealth of AustraliaHeadquarters Turner Australian Capital Territory Motto Australia’s independent voice on national water issuesEmployees 48The key function that the Commission provided was to advise the Prime Minister on expenditure of the Australian Government Water Fund between 2004 and 2010 FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA :FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ316 Who among the following are the members of the Western Pacific Naval Symposium 1 India2 China3 Malaysia4 Australia5 JapanSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 245B 1345C 2345D All are correctAns CThe Western Pacific Naval Symposium are a series of biennial meetings of the Pacific nations to discuss naval matters held on even numbered years A WPNS workshop is held on odd numbered years in between the symposiumsMember countries as of 2010: Australia Brunei Cambodia Canada Chile France Indonesia Japan Malaysia New Zealand Papua New Guinea Peoples’ Republic of China Philippines Republic of Korea Russia Singapore Thailand Tonga United States of America Vietnam Observers: Bangladesh India Mexico PeruFRAMED FROM GK TODAY MAGAZINEQ315 Who among the following is/are the members of the Boao Forum for Asia BFA 1 China2 India3 FICCI Federation of Indian Chambers of CommerceSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 1 amp 2Ans AIt is a non-profit organisation that hosts high-level forums for leaders from government business and academia in Asia and other continents to share their vision on the most pressing issues in this dynamic region and the world at large BFA is modeled after the World Economic Forum held annually in Davos SwitzerlandThe Forum is committed to promoting regional economic integration and bringing Asian countries even closer to their development goals FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA :FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ314 Terai Arc Landscape program aims to protect which among the following terrestrial flagship species 1 African elephant2 Great Horned Rhinoceros3 Asian Elephant4 Golden LionSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 2B 234C Only 2 amp 3D 124Ans CTerai Arc Landscape Program:The program aims to protect three of the five terrestrial flagship species the tiger the Asian elephant and the great one-horned rhinoceros by restoring corridors of forest to link 13 protected areas of Nepal and India to enable wildlife migrationFROM IES 2018 PRELIMSQ313 What is crowdfunding A Money collected for public welfare projects by levying an entry fee to exhibitions shows etcB Money collected by charitable organisations by placing a donation box at a prominent locationsC Money raised by innovators amp inventors by launching their products amp services through the internetD Money raised by individuals by passing the hat around to onlookers at a street performanceAns CCrowdfunding is the practice of funding a project or venture by raising many small amounts of money from a large number of people typically via the Internet1 Crowdfunding is a form of crowdsourcing and of alternative finance In 2015 it was estimated that worldwide over US34 billion was raised this waythe term crowdfunding refers to Internet-mediated registries This modern crowdfunding model is generally based on three types of actors: the project initiator who proposes the idea and/or project to be funded individuals or groups who support the idea and a moderating organization the platform that brings the parties together to launch the idea Crowdfunding has been used to fund a wide range of for-profit entrepreneurial ventures such as artistic and creative projects medical expenses travel or community-oriented social entrepreneurship projectsWar bonds are theoretically a form of crowdfunding military conflictsThe Crowdfunding Centre’s May 2014 report identified two primary types of crowdfunding:1 Rewards crowdfunding: entrepreneurs presell a product or service to launch a business concept without incurring debt or sacrificing equity/shares2 Equity crowdfunding: the backer receives shares of a company usually in its early stages in exchange for the money pledgedFROM IES 2018 PRELIMSQ312 The meaning of carbon footprint is described by the amount of :A Carbon dioxide released into the atmosphere as a result of the activities of a particular individual organization or communityB Greenhouse gases emitted by industries contributing to global warmingC Carbon emissions released by the burning of jet fuelD Increase in the carbon content of the atmosphere due to the felling of treesAns AA carbon footprint is historically defined as the total set of greenhouse gas emissions caused by an individual event organisation or product expressed as carbon dioxide equivalentA measure of the total amount of carbon dioxide CO2 and methane CH4 emissions of a defined population system or activity considering all relevant sources sinks and storage within the spatial and temporal boundary of the population system or activity of interest Calculated as carbon dioxide equivalent using the relevant 100-year global warming potentialGWP100Carbon footprint is one of a family of footprint indicators which also includes water footprint and land footprint• 4Indirect carbon emissions: the carbon footprints of productso 41Foodo 42Textileso 43Materialso 44Cement• 5Schemes to reduce carbon emissions: Kyoto Protocol carbon offsetting and certificatesCarbon dioxide emissions into the atmosphere and the emissions of other GHGs are often associated with the burning of fossil fuels like natural gas crude oil and coal The Kyoto Protocol defines legally binding targets and timetables for cutting the GHG emissions of industrialized countries that ratified the Kyoto Protocol Accordingly from an economic or market perspective one has to distinguish between a mandatory market and a voluntary market Typical for both markets is the trade with emission certificates:• Certified Emission Reduction CER• Emission Reduction Unit ERU• Verified Emission Reduction VERlocal emissions reduction schemes have no status under the Kyoto Protocol itself they play a prominent role in creating the demand for CERs and ERUs stimulating Emissions Trading and setting a market price for emissionsFROM IES 2018 PRELIMSQ311 Non-performing Assets decline in value when 1 Demand revives in the economy 2 capacity utilization increases3 Capacity utilization through substantive is yet optimal4 Capacity utilization decreases consequent upon merger of unitsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 134B 124C 123D 1234Ans CA Non-performing asset NPA is defined as a credit facility in respect of which the interest and/or installment of principal has remained ‘past due’ for a specified period of time In simple terms an asset is tagged as non performing when it ceases to generate income for the lenderA Non-performing asset NPA is defined as a credit facility in respect of which the interest and/or installment of Bond finance principal has remained ‘past due’ for a specified period of time NPA is used by financial institutions that refer to loans that are in jeopardy of default the so called NPL Once the borrower has failed to make interest or principal payments for 90 days the loan is considered to be a non-performing asset Non-performing assets are problematic for financial institutions since they depend on interest payments for income Troublesome pressure from the economy can lead to a sharp increase in NPLs and often results in massive write-downsAccordingly with effect from March 31 2004 a non-performing asset NPAis a loan or an advance where• Interest and/or installment of principal remain overdue for a period of more than 91 days in respect of a term loan• The account remains ‘out of order’ for a period of more than 90 days in respect of an Overdraft/Cash Credit OD/CC• The bill remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days in the case of bills purchased and discounted• Interest and/or installment of principal remains overdue for two harvest seasons but for a period not exceeding two half years in the case of an advance granted for agricultural purposes and• Any amount to be received remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days in respect of other accounts• Non submission of Stock Statements for 3 Continuous Quarters in case of Cash Credit Facility• No active transactions in the account Cash Credit/Over Draft/EPC/PCFC for more than 91daysFROM IES 2018 PRELIMSQ310 Which of the following concepts are relatable to income of members of the public while considering public welfare 1 Sensitivity of demand2 Elasticity of demand3 Sensitive of expenditure 4 Elasticity of expenditureA 1 amp 2B 2 amp 3C 3 amp 4D 1 amp 4Ans BFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ309 Consider the following statements :1 Foods containing carotene Vitamin A or cooking oils are safe to be cooked in a microwave2 Thermocol plates are poor barrier to oxygen and water vapor and has a relatively high melting pointSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DThermocol plates:-It is a synthetic aromatic polymer made from the monomer styrene Polystyrene can be solid or foamed General-purpose polystyrene is clear hard and rather brittle It is an inexpensive resin per unit weight It is a rather poor barrier to oxygen and water vapor and has a relatively low melting pointPolystyrene is one of the most widely used plastics the scale of its production being several million tonnes per yearPolystyrene can be naturally transparent but can be colored with colorants Uses include protective packaging such as packing peanuts and CD and DVD cases containers such as clamshells lids bottles trays tumblers disposable cutlery5 and in the making of modelsPolystyrene is very slow to biodegrade and is therefore a focus of controversy among environmentalists It is increasingly abundant as a form of litter in the outdoor environment particularly along shores and waterways especially in its foam form and also in increasing quantities in the Pacific OceanPolystyrene is chemically very inert being resistant to acids and bases but is easily dissolved by many chlorinated solvents and many aromatic hydrocarbon solvents Because of its resilience and inertness it is used for fabricating many objects of commerce It is attacked by many organic solvents which dissolve the polymer Foamed polystyrene is used for packaging chemicalsLike all organic compounds polystyrene burns to give carbon dioxide and water vapor Polystyrene being an aromatic hydrocarbon typically combusts incompletely as indicated by the sooty flamePolystyrene is generally non-biodegradable Polystyrene is commonly used in containers for food and drinks The styrene monomer from which polystyrene is made is a cancer suspect agentAnother Japanese study conducted on wild-type and AhR-null mice found that the styrene trimer which the authors detected in cooked polystyrene container-packed instant foods may increase thyroid hormone levelsWhether polystyrene can be microwaved with food is controversial Some containers may be safely used in a microwave but only if labelled as such67 Some sources suggest that foods containing carotene Vitamin A or cooking oils must be avoidedLike other organic compounds polystyrene is flammableFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ308 Bio-ethanol can be produced from which of the following feedstocks 1 Bagasses2 Sorghum3 Sugar beetSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DBio-Ethanol:Ethanol can be produced from a variety of feedstocks such as sugar cane bagasse miscanthus sugar beet sorghum grain switchgrass barley hemp kenaf potatoes sweet potatoes cassava sunflower fruit molasses corn stover grain wheat straw cotton Two types of second generation processes are under development The first type uses enzymes and yeast fermentation to convert the plant cellulose into ethanol while the second type uses pyrolysis to convert the whole plant to either a liquid bio-oil or a syngas Second generation processes can also be used with plants such as grasses wood or agricultural waste material such as strawBy-products such as straw or wood chips can be converted to ethanol Fast growing species like switchgrass can be grown on land not suitable for other cash crops and yield high levels of ethanol per unit areaFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ307 Which among the following has been classified under the category of Eurythermal organism 1 Red Algae2 Coral reefs3 Golden brown AlgaeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 1 amp 2D 2 amp 3Ans AEurythermal organisms:Which can tolerate amp thrive in wide range of temperaturesEx: Cat Dog Tiger Red Algae Golden brown Algae Angiosperms sea GrassCryophillic organisms:Which can thrive at lower temperature as low as zero degree centigradeSeals Coral reefs Arctic Crustaceans Salmon FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ306 As per Kyoto Protocol agreement which among the following is/are the parties of Annex-I Countries 1 Kazakhstan2 Belarus3 TurkeySelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C Only 3D 123Ans BBelarus Malta and Turkey are Annex I Parties but do not have first-round Kyoto targetsFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ305 Consider the following :1 Bastar Iron Craft : Chhatisgarh2 Screw Pine handicraft : Odisha3 Pipili Aplique Work : KeralaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B Only 2C 1 amp 3D Only 1Ans DBastar Iron Craft : ChhatisgarhScrew Pine handicraft : KeralaPipili Aplique Work : OdishaFROM CAPFQ304 Which of the following was/were not related to the Buddha’s life 1 Kanthaka2 Alara Kalama3 Channa4 Goshala MaskariputraWhich among the above statements is/are correct A Only 1B Only 4C 1 amp 2D 3 amp 4AnsBFROM CAPFQ303 With reference to the Wavell plan consider the following provisions :1 Under this plan India was granted dominion status2 Indians would themselves draft the constitution3 Position of secretary of state amp viceroy would remain the same4 Viceroy would retain the power of vetoWhich among the above statements is/are correct A 134B 234C Only 1 amp 4D 1234Ans DThese proposals were not to be applied to the Indian statesFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q302 Which among the following is/are the examples of the Invasive Species 1 Water Hyacinth2 Wild rose3 Mimosa InvisaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B 1 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans DThe invasive water hyacinth is very common often choking the water bodies but it is cleared during destructive floods Another invasive species Mimosa invisa which is toxic to herbivores was cleared by Kaziranga staff with help from the Wildlife Trust of India in 2005Invasive species such as Mimosa and wild rose have posed a threat to the native plants in the regionFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q301 Consider the following :1 Ambubachi mela : Assam2 Anthurium Festival : Manipur3 Kut-Festival : MizoramSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B Only 1C 1 amp 3D 1 amp 2Ans B1 Ambubachi mela : Assam2 Anthurium Festival : Mizoram3 Kut-Festival : Manipur It is an autumn festival of the different tribes of Kuki-Chin-Mizo 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The Institute sponsors the Western Hemisphere hub office of the Global Ecovillage Network guided the formation of the Ecovillage Network of the Americas and is engaging in many other efforts to foster the expansion of the sustainable community movement worldwide The Institute’s program partners include the Sarvodaya movement in Sri Lanka Seoul National University’s Sustainable Urban Development program in Korea Sortavala in Russia the Green Kibbutz Movement in Israel Los Angeles EcoVillage The Tholego Development Project in South Africa Luna Nueva in Mexico the Institute for Latin American Permaculture in Bolivia Columbia Venezuela and Peru Reserva Sasardi the Institute for New Frontiers in Cooperation Builders without Borders the United Nations Best Practices program ECOSOC Context Institute Plenty International Permaculture Institute of Peru Grupo de Apoyo al Sector Rural Aztlan Centro De Rescate Ecologico Ecoaldea en Huehuecoyotl Asociacion Gaia Ecovillage Network of Canada Comunidade Tribal Vale Encantado and ABRASCA Brazil the emerging ecovillage communities in Unguia and the Sasardi Reserve in Colombia the Permaculture Institute of Brazil Fundacion Darien 7 Generaciones Uruguay La Caravana Arcoiris para la Paz and many more Global Village Video is a subsidiary production company which produces instructional tapes and dvds on a variety of subjects |
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The Consumer Protection Act of 1986 was enacted to provide protection of the interests of consumers and for the purpose of establishment of consumer councils and other authorities for the settlement of consumer disputes and for matter connected therewith The said Act was amended three times to make the act more effective but even then there were a few lacunas and nuances that were not incorporated Several shortcomings have been noticed while administering the various provisions of the said Act The new Consumer Protection Bill 2015 that has been introduced in the monsoon session of parliament seeks to replace the old act The primary motivation to replace the older law with a new one is to modernise the law with respect to the development of new markets and to further widen the ambit and a scope of the law to incorporate nuances so that the big companies cannot use them as loop holes to exploit the consumers and to further increase the accountability of the said companies The new bill seeks to make manufacturers liable for any injury attributed to the consumer or death of a consumer or property damage and get them sentenced for life FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ298 Which among the following comes under the classification of Microfauna 1 Bacteria2 Protozoa3 Fungi4 MitesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 4B 134C 234D 2 amp 4Ans D-Microflora : Bacteria Fungi Actinomycetes Microscopic Algae-Microfauna : Protozoans Rotifers Polycads Nematodes Mites Copepods 20-200 micronFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ297 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the FDI 1 Overseas corporate bodies OCB are disallowed to invest in India2 Direct investment excludes investment through purchase of shares3 After 2010 Permission of upto 49 FDI under the government automatic approval route in multi brand retailing subject to specified conditions has been allowed under FDI policy changesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 1 amp 2Ans D- Broadly foreign direct investment includes mergers and acquisitions building new facilities reinvesting profits earned from overseas operations and intra company loans In a narrow sense foreign direct investment refers just to building new facility a lasting management interest 10 percent or more of voting stock in an enterprise operating in an economy other than that of the investorFDI is the sum of equity capital other long-term capital and short-term capital as shown the balance of payments FDI usually involves participation in management joint-venture transfer of technology and expertise Direct investment excludes investment through purchase of sharesTypes of FDI1 Horizontal FDI arises when a firm duplicates its home country-based activities at the same value chain stage in a host country through FDI 2 Platform FDI Foreign direct investment from a source country into a destination country for the purpose of exporting to a third country3 Vertical FDI takes place when a firm through FDI moves upstream or downstream in different value chains ie when firms perform value-adding activities stage by stage in a vertical fashion in a host countryForeign direct investment incentives may take the following forms:• low corporate tax and individual income tax rates• tax holidays• other types of tax concessions• preferential tariffs• special economic zones• EPZ – Export Processing Zones• Bonded warehouses• Maquiladoras• investment financial subsidies8• free land or land subsidies• relocation amp expatriation• infrastructure subsidies• RampD support• Energy• derogation from regulations usually for very large projectsForeign investment was introduced in 1991 under Foreign Exchange Management Act FEMA driven by then finance minister Manmohan Singh India disallowed overseas corporate bodies OCB to invest in India India imposes cap on equity holding by foreign investors in various sectors current FDI in aviation and insurance sectors is limited to a maximum of 49FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ296 Which among the following is/are the examples of the floating plants 1 Azolla2 Utricularia3 WolfiaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 2B 2 amp 3C Only 1D 1 amp 3Ans DFloating Plants : Wolfia Lemna Azolla EichhorniaSubmerged Plants : Ceratophylum Utricularia NajasRooted -Floated Plants : Sagitaria Ranunculus CyperusFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ295 Which among the following is/are the producers of an ecosystem 1 Sea weeds2 Algae3 BryophytesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B Only 2C 1 amp 3D 123Ans DProducers of an ecosystem :Algae Bryophyte Pteridophytes Flowering plants Some photosynthetic bacteriaSea weeds are producers in marine ecosystemFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ294 With reference to the news which among the following is/are correct with respect to the SAWEN 1 It is regional inter-governmental wildlife law enforcement support body launched in 20132 All the south Asian countries are the members of the SAWEN regional networkSelect the correct answers using the code given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DSAWEN is regional inter-governmental wildlife law enforcement support body launched in January 2011 in Paro Bhutan It aims at working collectively as a strong regional inter-governmental body to combat wildlife crime by attainting common mutual goals and approaches for combating illegal trade in the region SAWEN’s regional network comprises of eight South Asia countries: Afghanistan India Pakistan Nepal Bhutan Bangladesh Sri Lanka and MaldivesFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ293 Which of the following is correct A Guindy national park is known for tiger reserveB Namdapha national park is meant for lion conservationC Jaldapara is a biosphere reserveD Rann of Kutch is wild ass sanctuaryAns DGuindy National Park is a 270 km2 104 sq mi Protected area of Tamil Nadu located in Chennai South India is the 8th smallest National Park of India and one of the very few national parks situated inside a city -There are over 14 species of mammals including blackbuck chital or spotted deer jackal small Indian civet common palm civet bonnet macaque hyena pangolin hedgehog common mongoose and three-striped palm squirrel Guindy Snake Park formerly the location of Madras Crocodile Bank Trust is next to the Guindy National ParkJaldapara Wildlife Sanctuary is a national park situated at the foothills of the Eastern Himalayas in Alipurduar District of northern West Bengal and on the banks of the Torsa River The nearby Chilapata Forests is an elephant corridor between Jaldapara and the Buxa Tiger Reserve4 Near by is the Gorumara National Park known for its population of Indian rhinocerosToto tribes and Mech Tribes Bodos used to stay in this area before 1800 Namdapha National Park is the largest protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh in Northeast India It is also the third largest national park in India in terms of area It is located in the Eastern Himalayan sub-region and is recognized as one of the richest areas in biodiversity in IndiaThe area is also known for extensive Dipterocarpforests comprising the northwestern parts of the ecoregion of Mizoram-Manipur-Kachin rain forestsNamdapha and Pakke Tiger Reserve are in a region which is the eastern limit of the Bengal tiger’s and thenorth-western limit of the Indochinese tiger’s rangeNon-human primates present include stump-tailed macaque slow loris hoolock gibbon capped langur Assamese macaque and rhesus macaqueThe Great Rann of Kutch is a salt marsh located in the Thar Desert in the Kutch District of Gujarat India and the Sindhprovince of Pakistan The Ghaggar River which presently empties into the desert of northern Rajasthan formerly emptied into the Rann of Kutch but the lower reaches of the river dried up as its upstream tributaries were captured by the Indus and Ganges thousands of years ago FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ292 Which among the following has been accorded UNESCO World heritage status 1 Serengeti national park2 Sanctuary of Machu Picchu3 Arabian Oryx sanctuarySelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B Only 3C 1 amp 2D Only 1Ans CUNESCO WORLD HERITAGE STATUSA World Heritage Site is an already classified landmark which by way of being unique in some respect as a geographically and historically identifiable piece is of special cultural or physical significance such as either due to hosting an ancient ruins or some historical structure building city complex desert forest island lake monument or mountain The list is maintained by the international World Heritage Programme administered by the UNESCO World Heritage Committee composed of 21 UNESCO member states which are elected by the UN General Assembly2A single text was agreed on by all parties and the Convention Concerning the Protection of the World Cultural and Natural Heritage was adopted by the General Conference of UNESCO on 16 November 1972The Convention came into force on 17 December 1975 As of May 2017 it has been ratified by 193 states parties including 189 UN member states plus the Cook Islands the Holy See Niue and the Palestinian territories Only four UN member states have not ratified the Convention: Liechtenstein Nauru Somalia and TuvaluThe Committee meets once per year to determine whether or not to inscribe each nominated property on the World Heritage List and sometimes defers or refers the decision to request more information from the country which nominated the site There are ten selection criteria – a site must meet at least one of them to be included on the listSerengeti National Park an example of natural heritage siteTaj Mahal an example of cultural heritage siteHistoric Sanctuary of Machu Picchu an example of mixed heritage siteOnly two sites have ever been delisted: the Arabian Oryx Sanctuary in Oman and the Dresden Elbe Valley in Germany FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ291 Consider the following tribes :State / Region Tribes1 Minicoy : Dhivehis2 Andaman Islands : Jangil3 Meghalaya : JaintiaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C Only 1D 123Ans DEthnic groups of Meghalaya :Ethnic groups 2011 :• Khasi: 50• Garo: 275• Bengali: 14• Nepali: 526• Koch: 18• Jaintia: 25• Hajong: 28• Biate: 11• Tiwa Lalung: 12• Kuki: 043• Shaikh: 03• Other: 933-By the 1850s when they first came into sustained contact by outside groups there were estimated 7000 Andamanese divided into the following major groups:• Great Andamanese• Jarawa• Jangil or Rutland Jarawa• Onge• SentineleseMinicoy :Minicoy locally known as Maliku is an island in Lakshadweep India Along with Viringili it is on Maliku atoll the southernmost atoll of Lakshadweep archipelago Administratively it is a census town in the Indian union territory of LakshadweepMinicoy is the second largest and the southernmost among the islands of the Lakshadweep archipelago It is located 201 km to the SSW of Kalpeni at the southern end of the Nine Degree Channel and 125 km to the north of Thuraakunu Maldives at the northern end of the Eight Degree ChannelMaliku Kandu is the traditional name of the broad channel between Minicoy Maliku and Ihavandippulhu Haa Alif Atoll in the Maldives In the Admiralty Charts it is called Eight Degree ChannelOther names for this channel are Addigiri Kandu and Māmalē Kandu It appeared in old French maps with the name Courant de MalicutMinicoy has a tropical savanna climate Köppen climate classification Aw with warm temperatures throughout the year Precipitation falls during most of the year only January to March are relatively dry The people of Minicoy are ethnically Dhivehis and make up the third subgroup of Dhivehis referred as Mahls Thuraakunu in the Maldives is the closest island to Minicoy The bodun owned land and bandu-odies merchant ships they were the vering rulers The niamin were pilots of the Bandu-odies and while on shore assisted the bodun in administrative and other leadership functions they were custodians of property and supervised public work The medhukimbin and the raaverin were working classes the medhukimbin enjoying a status higher than the raaverin The raaverin tapped coconut palms for toddy a distinctive beverage converted into sweet palm syrup Coconut vinegar known as raahuiiy was also produced by the raaverinFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ290 Which among the following species is/ are the part of the Keibul lamjao National Park 1 Sangai2 Brown-antlered deer3 stump-tailed macaqueSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 3C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DFauna recorded in the precincts of the Lake in the Keibul Lamjo National Park are the Indian python sambar barking deer the endangered sangai species of Eld’s deer wild bear Muntiacus muntjak rhesus monkey hoolock gibbon stump-tailed macaque Indian civet Viverra zibetha marbled cat and Temminck’s golden catThe Keibul Lamjao National Park is the last natural refuge of the endangered sangai state animalRucervus eldii eldii or Manipur brown-antlered deer Cervus eldi eldi one of three subspecies of Eld’s deerFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ289 Who among the following is/are the members of the Indian Statistical Institute 1 President of India 2 Representatives of Government of India 3 Prime Minister of India Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C Only 2D 1 amp 2Ans CIndian Statistical Institute ISI is an academic institute of national importance as recognised by a 1959 act of the Indian parliamentPrimary activities of ISI are research and training of Statistics development of theoretical Statistics and its applications in various natural and social sciences Originally affiliated with the University of Calcutta the institute was declared an institute of national importance in 1959 through an act of Indian parliament Indian Statistical Institute act 1959 ISI functions under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation MOSPI of the Government of IndiaMembers of this council include the President of ISI the Chairman of ISI representatives of the Government of India including one representative of RBI scientists not employed in ISI including one representative from the Planning Commission of India and one representative of the UGC representatives of scientific and non-scientific workers of ISI and representative from academic staff of ISI including the Director of ISI and the Dean of Studies of ISIThe second five-year plan of India was a brainchild of Mahalanobis The plan followed the Mahalanobis model an economic development model developed by Mahalanobis in 1953 The plan attempted to determine the optimal allocation of investment between productive sectors in order to maximise long-run economic growth FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ288 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the Bureau of Indian Standards 1It is the national Standards Body of India working under the Ministry of Commerce2 As a corporate body it has 21 members drawn from Central or State Governments only3 BIS is a founder member of International Organisation for Standardization ISOSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 2B 1 amp 2C Only 3D 123Ans CThe Bureau of Indian Standards BIS is the national Standards Body of India working under the aegis of Ministry of Consumer Affairs Food amp Public Distribution Government of India It is established by the Bureau of Indian Standards Act 1986 which came into effect on 23 December 19862 The Minister in charge of the Ministry or Department having administrative control of the BIS is the ex-officio President of the BISAs a corporate body it has 25 members drawn from Central or State Governments industry scientific and research institutions and consumer organisations Its headquarters are in New Delhi with regional offices in Kolkata Chennai Mumbai Chandigarh and Delhiand 20 branch offices It also works as WTO-TBT enquiry point for IndiaBIS is a founder member of International Organisation for Standardization ISOIt represents India in the International Organization for Standardization ISO the International Electrotechnical Commission IEC and the World Standards Service Network WSSNProduct Certifications are to be obtained voluntarily For some of the products like Milk powder Drinking Water LPG Cylinders Thermometers etc certification is mandatory Because these products are concerned with health and safetyNational Institute of Training for Standardization NITSIt is a training institute of BIS which is set up in 1995 It is functioning from Noida Uttar Pradesh India7The primary activities of NITS are:-• In-House and Open Training Programme for Industry• International Training Programme for Developing Countries Commonwealth countries• Training Programme to its employeesIndian Standards Bill 2015The main objectives of the proposed legislation are:-• To establish the Bureau of Indian standardsBIS as the National Standards Body of India• The Bureau to perform its functions through a governing council which will consist of President and other members• To include goods services and systems besides articles and processes under the standardization regime• To enable the government to bring under the mandatory certification regime for such articles processes or service which it considers necessary from the point of view of health safety environment prevention of deceptive practices consumer security etc This will help consumers receive ISI certified products and will also help in prevention of import of sub-standard products• To allow multiple types of simplified conformity assessment schemes including self-declaration of conformity SDOC against any standard which will give multiple simplified options to manufacturers to adhere to standards and get a certificate of conformity thus improving the ‘ease of doing business’• To enable the Central Government to appoint any authority in addition to the Bureau of Indian Standards to verify the conformity of products and services to a standard and issue certificate of conformity• To enable the Government to implement mandatory hallmarking of precious metals articles• To strengthen penal provisions for better effective compliance and enable compounding of offences for violations• To provide recall including product liability of products bearing the Standard Mark but not conforming to relevant Indian Standards• Repeal of the BIS Act of 1986• The Bureau of Indian Standards Act 2016 received the assent of the President on 21 March 2016FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ287 For which of the following products ISO certification is mandatory 1 Thermometers2 Drinking water3 LPG CylindersSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DProduct Certifications are to be obtained voluntarily For some of the products like Milk powder Drinking Water LPG Cylinders Thermometers etc certification is mandatory Because these products are concerned with health and safetyFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ286 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the 24-D 24-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid 1 In agriculture it is the first herbicide found to be capable of selectively killing of crops apart from weeds2 Mostly grasses such as cereals lawn turf and grassland relatively unaffected by this herbicideSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns B24-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid usually called 24-D is an organic compound with the chemical formula C8H6Cl2O3 It is a systemic herbicide which selectively kills most broadleaf weeds by causing uncontrolled growth in them but leaves most grasses such as cereals lawn turf and grassland relatively unaffected It can be found in numerous commercial lawn herbicide mixtures and is widely used as a weedkiller on cereal crops pastures and orchards 24-D was one of the ingredients in Agent Orange a herbicide widely used during the Vietnam War24-D is primarily used as a selective herbicide which kills many terrestrial and aquatic broadleaf weeds but not grasses It acts by mimicking the action of the plant growth hormone auxin which results in uncontrolled growth and eventually death in susceptible plants In agriculture it was the first herbicide found to be capable of selectively killing weeds but not crops It is often used by government agencies to control the spread of invasive noxious and non-native weed species and prevent them from crowding out native species and also to control many poisonous weeds such as poison ivy and poison oakMen who work with 24-D are at risk for abnormally shaped sperm and thus fertility problems Residue levels in kidney were the highest24-D is a synthetic auxin which is a class of plant hormones FRAMED FROM TIMES OF INDIAQ285 MIBOR rate is used as a bench mark rate for which of the following 1 Demand deposits 2 Forward rate agreements3 Term depositsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans BThe MIBID/MIBOR rate is used as a bench mark rate for majority of deals struck for Interest Rate Swaps Forward Rate Agreements Floating Rate Debentures and Term DepositsMIBOR – Mumbai Inter-Bank Offer RateThe Committee for the Development of the Debt Market that had studied and recommended the modalities for the development for a benchmark rate for the call money market Accordingly NSE had developed and launched the NSE Mumbai Inter-bank Bid Rate MIBID and NSE Mumbai Inter-bank Offer Rate MIBOR for the overnight money market on June 15 1998 FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ284 Consider the following :1 Ambubachi mela : Assam2 Anthurium Festival : Arunachal Pradesh3 Kut festival : MizoramSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 1C 2 amp 3D Only 3Ans BAmbubachi mela : AssamAnthurium Festival : MizoramKut-Festival Of Kuki-Chin-Mizo:It is an autumn festival of the different tribes of Kuki-Chin-Mizo groups of Manipur FRAMED FROM THE HINDUQ283 Which among the following reports are released by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development UNCTAD 1 Trade and Development Report2 World development report3 World investment reportSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B 1 amp 2C Only 2D 1 amp 3Ans DThe United Nations Conference on Trade and Development UNCTAD was established in 1964 as a permanent intergovernmental bodyUNCTAD is the principal organ of the United Nations General Assembly dealing with trade investment and development issues The organization’s goals are to: maximize the trade investment and development opportunities of developing countries and assist them in their efforts to integrate into the world economy on an equitable basisThe conference ordinarily meets once in four years the permanent secretariat is in GenevaThe United Nations Conference on Trade and Development was established to provide a forum where the developing countries could discuss the problems relating to their economic development Currently UNCTAD has 194 member states and is headquartered in Geneva Switzerland UNCTAD has 400 staff members and a bi-annual 2010–2011 regular budget of 138 million in core expenditures and 72 million in extra-budgetary technical assistance funds It is a member of the United Nations Development Group2 There are non-governmental organizations participating in the activities of UNCTADUNCTAD produces a number of topical reports including:• The Trade and Development Report• The Trade and Environment Review• The World Investment Report• The Economic Development in Africa Report• The Least Developed Countries Report• UNCTAD Statistics• The Information Economy Report• The Review of Maritime Transport• The International Accounting and Reporting Issues Annual Review• The Technology and Innovation ReporUNCTAD conducts technical cooperation programmes such as ASYCUDA DMFAS EMPRETEC and WAIPAIn addition UNCTAD conducts certain technical cooperation in collaboration with the World Trade Organization through the joint International Trade Centre ITC a technical cooperation agency targeting operational and enterprise-oriented aspects of trade developmentUNCTAD hosts the Intergovernmental Working Group of Experts on International Standards of Accounting and Reporting ISARFRAMED FROM TIMES OF INDIAQ282 With reference to the news what are AD Category-I banks A It is the form of Smart Banking initiative that enables banks to optimise customer engagement models B These are the business correspondents that extend small credit on behalf of the banksC These are the banks that are equipped with technology for automated transaction of cashD These are the banks that deal with the conversion of currency notes coins or travellers’ cheques designated in foreign currency into Indian Rupees amp Vice versaAns DAuthorised DealerAD category 1 bank is one of the three types of authorised money changer approved by the RBI under Foreign Exchange Management ActFEMA with the other two being Authorised Dealer category 2 and Full Fledged Money ChangerFFMC They deal with the conversion of currency notes coins or travellers’ cheques designated in foreign currency into Indian Rupees and vice versa Their objective is to provide easier foreign exchange facilties for travellers and tourists including NRIsFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ281 Consider the following :1 Hemis Gompa : Ladakh2 Chhipla Jaat : Himachal Pradesh3 Jhiri Mela : Jammu amp KashmirSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 3D 123Ans CSome of the festivals celebrated in the Uttarakhand region are Basant Panchami Bhitauli Harela Phool Dei Batsavitri Ganga Dusshera or Dasar Dikar Puja Olgia or Ghee Sankranti Khatarua Ghuian Ekadashi Chhipla Jaat Kandali Janopunya Kumaon Holi including Khari Holi and Baithaki Holi and Makar SankrantiThe most commonly celebrated festivals in Kashmir are Lohri Baisakhi Bahu mela the Jhiri mela the Mansar food and craft mela Chaitre Chaudash mela and the Purmandal melaHemis Gompa the largest and richest Buddhist monastery in Ladakh plays host to the popular yearly festival day called Hemis Festival FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ280 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Visa On Arrival 1 The VOA facility can only be used for no more than two times in one calendar year2 The duration of stay can be extended for one year3 Double entry is permitted on e-Medical Visa amp Triple entry is permitted on e-Tourist VisaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B Only 1C 1 amp 3D 1 amp 2Ans BTourist visa scheme Foreign citizens possessing an Overseas Citizen of India registration certificate or holders of a Persons of Indian Origin Card are exempt from visa requirements have the right of domicile in India and are allowed unlimited entries into India Citizens of Afghanistan Bangladesh Bhutan mainland China Nepal or Pakistan are generally not entitled to hold Overseas Indian CitizenshipVisa On Arrival:Citizens of the following countries can apply for a visa on arrival VOA in Bengaluru Chennai Delhi Hyderabad Kolkata or Mumbai The visa is issued for business tourist medical and conference categories and has a validity of 30 days3 The cost is ₹2000 The VOA facility can only be used for no more than two times in one calendar year41 Alternatively foreign citizens eligible for a VOA can apply for an e-Visa instead if they intend to visit India for a period longer than 30 days or if they intend to enter the country through an airport or seaport not covered by the VOA schemeDouble entry is permitted on e-Tourist Visa and e-Business Visa Triple entry is permitted on e-Medical Visa The duration of stay cannot be extendedFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ279 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the whitley awards 1 These are awarded annually by the WWF for the national amp regional conservation 2 It also serves as a forum between employers and employees for the conservation of wildlife Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DWhitley awards – For Wildlife conservationThe Whitley Awards are made annually by the Whitley Fund for Nature WFN to recognise and celebrate effective national and regional conservation leaders across the globe The awards are worth £35000 2017 and are now amongst the most high profile of conservation prizes – they have been called the Green OscarsFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ278 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Loro account 1 Commercial banks maintains their own loro accounts with the authorization from RBI2 A balance on loro account represents central bank money in the regarded currencySelect the correct answer using the codes given below “A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns BThe central bank maintains loro accounts for a group of commercial banks the so-called direct payment banks A balance on such a loro account it is a nostro account in the view of the commercial bank represents central bank money in the regarded currency Since central bank money currently exists mainly in the form of electronic records electronic money rather than in the form of paper or coins physical money open market operations can be conducted by simply increasing or decreasing crediting or debiting the amount of electronic money that a bank has in its reserve account at the central bank Open market operationsAn open market operation OMO is an activity by a central bank to give or take liquidity in its currency to or from a bank or a group of banks The central bank can either buy or sell government bonds in the open market this is where the name was historically derived from or in what is now mostly the preferred solution enter into a repo or secured lending transaction with a commercial bank: the central bank gives the money as a deposit for a defined period and synchronously takes an eligible asset as collateral A central bank uses OMO as the primary means of implementing monetary policy The usual aim of open market operations is – aside from supplying commercial banks with liquidity and sometimes taking surplus liquidity from commercial banks – to manipulate the short-term interest rate and the supply of base money in an economy and thus indirectly control the total money supply in effect expanding money or contracting the money supply This involves meeting the demand of base money at the target interest rate by buying and selling government securities or other financial instruments Monetary targets such as inflation interest rates or exchange rates are used to guide this implementationClassical economic theory postulates a distinctive relationship between the supply of central bank money and short-term interest rates: like for a commodity a higher demand for central bank money would increase its price the interest rate When there is an increased demand for base money the central bank must act if it wishes to maintain the short-term interest rate It does this by increasing the supply of base money: it goes to the open market to buy a financial asset such as government bonds • Under a currency board open market operations would be used to achieve and maintain a fixed exchange rate with relation to some foreign currency• Under a gold standard notes would be convertible to gold and so open market operations could be used to keep the value of a fiat currency constant relative to goldThe two traditional type of OMO’s used by RBI:1 Outright purchase PEMO: Is outright buying or selling of government securities Permanent2 Repurchase agreement REPO: Is short term and are subject to repurchaseThe RBI brought together a Liquidity Adjustment Facility LAF It commenced in June 2000 and it was set up to oversee liquidity on a daily basis and to monitor market interest rates For the LAF two rates are set by the RBI: repo rate and reverse repo rate The repo rate is applicable while selling securities to RBI daily injection of liquidity while the reverse repo rate is applicable when banks buy back those securities daily absorption of liquidity Also these interest rates fixed by the RBI also help in determining other market interest rates on the recommendations of the Working Group of RBI on instruments of Sterilization December 2003 a new scheme known as the Market stabilization scheme MSS was set up The LAF and the OMO’s were dealing with day-to-day liquidity management whereas the MSS was set up to sterilize the liquidity absorption and make it more enduringAccording to this scheme the RBI issues additional T-bills and securities to absorb the liquidity And the money goes into the Market Stabilization scheme Account MSSA The RBI cannot use this account for paying any interest or discounts and cannot credit any premiums to this account The Government in collaboration with the RBI fixes a ceiling amount on the issue of these instrumentsFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ277 Which among the following species is/ are not the extinct species under the IUCN status 1 Steller’s sea cow2 Short tailed albatross3 Spectacled cormorantSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 3D Only 2Ans DThe Bering Sea is a marginal sea of the Pacific OceanIt comprises a deep water basin which then rises through a narrow slope into the shallower water above the continental shelvesThere is a small portion of the Kula Plate in the Bering Sea The Kula Plate is an ancient tectonic plate that used to subduct under AlaskaThe sea supports many whale species including the beluga humpback whale bowhead whale gray whale and blue whale the vulnerable sperm whale and the endangered fin whale sei whale and the rarest in the world the North Pacific right whale Other marine mammals include walrus Steller sea lion northern fur seal orca and polar bearSeabird species include tufted puffins the endangered short-tailed albatross spectacled eider and red-legged kittiwakes Two Bering Sea species the Steller’s sea cow Hydrodamalis gigas and spectacled cormorant Phalacrocorax perspicillatus are extinct because of overexploitation by man In addition a small subspecies of Canada goose the Bering Canada goose Branta canadensis asiatica is extinct due to overhunting and introduction of rats to their breeding islandsFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ276 With reference to the news what is 20:80 scheme of gold A It is the central sponsored scheme representing the highest share of the central government as compared to the state government B It was introduced to bring down gold imports and narrow the current account deficitC It is the central sponsored scheme for increasing the visible amp invisible exports D It was introduced to enhance the gold exports thereby reducing the fiscal deficitAns BThe 20:80 import rule linking imports to exports was introduced last year to bring down gold imports and narrow the current account deficit that had hit a record of 48 per cent of GDPAlthough legal import of gold declined in the subsequent months the 20:80 rule was not only encouraging smuggling but it was also misused by many tradersFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ275 Which among the following is/are the targets that have to be achieved under the AMRUT scheme 1 Tap water amp sewerage facilities 2 Internet amp wifi facilities3 Pollution reduction Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B 1 amp 3C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DThe scheme was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in June 2015 with the focus of the urban renewal projects is to establish infrastructure that could ensure adequate robust sewage networks and water supply for urban transformation Rajasthan was the first state in the country to submit State Annual Action Plan under Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation AMRUT About ₹1 lakh crore US16 billion investment on urban development under Smart Cities Mission and the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation of 500 cities has already been approved by the governmentSome of the broad targets of AMRUT scheme are ascertaining that every one has access to tap water and sewerage facilities greenery like parks and open spaces are well maintained digital and smart facilities like weather prediction internet and WiFi facilities pollution reduction by encouraging the public for using cheaper but secure public transport etcFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ274 As per Vavilov’s centre of origin which among the following comes under the Indo-Burma region 1 Assam2 North West Punjab3 BurmaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C Only 1D 123Ans AFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ273 Consider the following :1 Melghat Tiger reserve : Maharashtra 2Tansa Wildlife sanctuary : Tripura3 Purna wildlife sanctuary : GujaratSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B 1 amp 2C Only 2D 1 amp 3Ans DIn Gujarat the owlet can be found in Purna Wildlife SanctuaryMelghat Tiger Reserve in MaharashtraThe forest owlet remains critically endangered and the population in 2015 was estimated by Birdlife International at less than 250An individual was located in Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary in the Thane district in 2014FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ272 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the subatomic particles Baryon 1 These are the quark-based particles that participate in the strong interaction2 They are similar in functioning as compared to the lepton amp Mesons 3 Protons amp neutrons are the only baryons that make up most of the mass of the visible matter in the universeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 2B 2 amp 3C Only 1D 123Ans CA baryon is a composite subatomic particle made up of three quarks a triquark as distinct from mesons which are composed of one quark and one antiquark Baryons and mesons belong to the hadron family of particles which are the quark-based particlesAs quark-based particles baryons participate in the strong interaction whereas leptons which are not quark-based do not The most familiar baryons are the protons and neutrons that make up most of the mass of the visible matter in the universe Electrons the other major component of the atom are leptonsEach baryon has a corresponding antiparticle antibaryon where quarks are replaced by their corresponding antiquarks For example a proton is made of two up quarks and one down quark and its corresponding antiparticle the antiproton is made of two up antiquarks and one down antiquarkFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ271 Which among the following is/are the examples of the e-liquids that are used in e-cigarettes 1 Water2 Nicotine3 GlycerineSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 2B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 3D 123Ans DAn electronic cigarette or e-cigarette is a handheld electronic device that tries to create the feeling of tobacco smoking It works by heating a liquid to generate an aerosol commonly called a vapor that the user inhales Using e-cigarettes is sometimes called vaping The liquid in the e-cigarette called e-liquid is usually made of nicotine propylene glycol glycerine and flavorings Not all e-liquids contain nicotineThe health risks of e-cigarettes are uncertain They are likely safer than tobacco cigarettes but the long-term health effects are not knownThey can help some smokers quit When used by non-smokers e-cigarettes can lead to nicotine addiction and there is concern that children could start smoking after using e-cigarettes Less serious adverse effects include throat and mouth irritation vomiting nausea and coughingThe majority of toxic chemicals found in tobacco smoke are absent in e-cigarette aerosolThose present are mostly below 1 corresponding levels in tobacco smokeThe emergence of e-cigarettes has given cannabis smokers a new method of inhaling cannabinoids E-cigarettes differ from traditional marijuana cigarettes in several respects It is assumed that vaporizing cannabinoids at lower temperatures is safer because it produces smaller amounts of toxic substances than the hot combustion of a marijuana cigaretteE-liquid is the mixture used in vapor products such as e-cigarettes and generally consists of propylene glycol glycerin water nicotine and flavoringsSmoking a traditional cigarette yields between 05 and 15 mg of nicotine but the nicotine content of the cigarette is only weakly correlated with the levels of nicotine in the smoker’s bloodstream Nicotine in tobacco smoke is absorbed into the bloodstream rapidly and e-cigarette vapor is relatively slow in this regardThe concentration of nicotine in e-liquid ranges up to 36 mg/MlFRAMED FROM SPECTRUMQ270 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Lingayatism 1 Lingayatism was founded by the Basava in the 11th century2 Lingayat scholars thrived in northern Karnataka during the centuries of rule by Vijayanagara Empire3 The Lingayats buried their dead in the Dhyana mudra with their Ishta linga in their left handSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B 2 amp 3C Only 2D 1 amp 3Ans BLingayatism is a distinct Shaivite religious tradition in India Its worship is centered on Hindu god Shiva as the universal god in the iconographic form of Ishtalinga The adherents of this faith are known as Lingayats Lingayatism was founded by the 12th-century philosopher and statesman Basava and spread by his followers called Sharanas1 Lingayatism emphasizes qualified monism and bhakti loving devotion to Shiva with philosophical foundations similar to those of the 11th–12th-century South Indian philosopher RamanujaThe terms Lingayatism and Veerashaivism have been used synonymously and Lingayats also referred to as is considered a Hindu sect25 but some Lingayats have sought legal recognition as a religion distinct from Hinduism26Lingayatism shares beliefs with Indian religions such as about reincarnation samsara and karmaContemporary Lingayatism is influential in South India especially in the state of Karnataka10 Today Lingayats along with Shaiva Siddhanta followers Tirunelveli Saiva Pillai Nadar Naths Pashupaths of Nepal Kapalikas and others constitute the Shaiva populationThe Lingayat iṣṭaliṅga is an oval-shaped emblem symbolising Parashiva the absolute reality and is worn on the body by a cord hung around the neckBasava is credited with founding Lingayatism and its secular practices2 He was a 12th-century Hindu philosopher statesman Kannada poet in the Shiva-focussed Bhakti movement and a social reformer during the reign of the Kalachuri-dynasty king Bijjala I in Karnataka IndiaBasavanna spread social awareness through his poetry popularly known as Vachanaas Basavanna rejected gender or social discrimination as well as some extant practices such as the wearing of sacred thread19 and replaced this with the ritual of wearing Ishtalinga necklace with an image of the Shiva LiṅgaLingayat scholars thrived in northern Karnataka during the centuries of rule by Vijayanagara Empire22 The Lingayats likely were a part of the reason why Vijayanagara succeeded in territorial expansion and in withstanding the Deccan Sultanate wars The Lingayat text Sunya sampadane grew out of the scholarly discussions in a Anubhava Mantap and according to Bill Aitken these were compiled at the Vijayanagara court during the reign of Praudha Deva RayaSimilarly the scripture of Lingayatism Basava Purana was completed in 1369 during the reign of Vijayanagara ruler Bukka Raya ILingayat Veerashaiva thinkers rejected the custodial hold of Brahmins over the Vedas and the shastras but they did not outright reject the Vedic knowledge2930 The 13th-century Telugu Virashaiva poet Palkuriki Somanatha author of Basava Purana – a scripture of Veerashaivas for example asserted Virashaivism fully conformed to the Vedas and the shastrasLingayatism teaches a path to an individual’s spiritual progress is viewed and describes it as a six-stage Satsthalasiddhanta This concept progressively evolves the individual starting with the phase of a devoteeShunya in a series of Kannada language texts is equated with the Virashaiva concept of the Supreme In particular the Shunya Sampadane texts present the ideas of Allama Prabhuin a form of dialogue where shunya is that void and distinctions which a spiritual journey seeks to fill and eliminate It is the described as state of union of one’s soul with the infinite Shiva the state of blissful moksha3This Lingayat concept is similar to shunya Brahma concept found in certain texts of Vaishnavism particularly in Odiya such as the poetic Panchasakhas It explains the Nirguna Brahman idea of Vedanta that is the eternal unchanging metaphysical reality as personified void However both in Lingayatism and various flavors of Vaishnavism such as Mahima Dharma the idea of Shunya is closer to the Hindu concept of metaphysical Brahman rather than to the Śūnyatā concept of Buddhism35 However there is some overlap such as in the works of Bhima BhoiThe Lingayats always wear the Ishtalinga held with a necklace2 The Istalinga is made up of light gray slate stone coated with fine durable thick black paste of cow dung ashes mixed with some suitable oil to withstand wear and tear Sometime it is made up of ashes mixed with clarified butter The coating is called Kanti coveringThe Lingayats bury their dead The dead are buried in the Dhyana mudra meditating position with their Ishta linga in their left handFRAMED FROM TIMES OF INDIAQ269 Which among the following is/are the examples of the payment banks 1 Reliance Industries2 Sun Pharmaceuticals3 PaytmSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 3C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DPayments banks is a new model of banks conceptualised by the Reserve Bank of India RBI These banks can accept a restricted deposit which is currently limited to ₹1 lakh per customer and may be increased further These banks cannot issue loans and credit cards Both current account and savings accounts can be operated by such banks Payments banks can issue services like ATM cards debit cards net-banking and mobile-banking Airtel has launched India’s first live payments bank1 Paytm is the second such service to be launched in the country India Post Payments Bank is the third entity to receive payments bank permit after Bharti Airtel and Paytm Aditya Birla group earned payments bank permit on 3 March 2017The voting rights will be regulated by the Banking Regulation Act 1949The bank should be fully networked from the beginning The bank can accept utility bills It cannot form subsidiaries to undertake non-banking activitiesThe bank cannot undertake lending activities The banks will be licensed as payments banks under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act 1949 and will be registered as public limited company under the Companies Act 2013On 19 August 2015 the Reserve Bank of India gave in-principle licences to eleven entities to launch payments banks:12131 Aditya Birla Nuvo2 Airtel M Commerce Services3 Cholamandalam Distribution Services4 Department of Posts5 FINO PayTech6 National Securities Depository7 Reliance Industries8 Sun Pharmaceuticals9 Paytm10 Tech Mahindra11 Vodafone M-PesaThe in-principle license is valid for 18 months within which the entities must fulfil the requirements They are not allowed to engage in banking activities within the period The RBI will consider grant full licenses under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act 1949 after it is satisfied that the conditions have been fulfilledFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ268 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Central Vigilance Commision 1 Prime Minister amp the Minister of Home Affairs gives recommendation on the appointment of the commissioners2 CVC have the powers to register criminal cases as well as economic crimes3 CVC can direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 3C 2 amp 3D Only 1Ans DCentral Vigilance Commission CVC is an apex Indian governmental body created in 1964 to address governmental corruption It has the status of an autonomous body free of control from any executive authority charged with monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government of India advising various authorities in central Government organizations in planning executing reviewing and reforming their vigilance workThe Commission shall consist of:• A Central Vigilance Commissioner – Chairperson• Not more than two Vigilance Commissioners – MembersThe CVC is not an investigating agencyThe only investigation carried out by the CVC is that of examining Civil Works of the Government which is done r6Corruption investigations against government officials can proceed only after the government permits them The CVC publishes a list of cases where permissions are pending some of which may be more than a year oldThe Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners shall be appointed by the President on recommendation of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister Chairperson the Minister of Home Affairs Member and the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People MemberThe Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner can be removed from his office only by order of the President on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity after the Supreme Court on a reference made to it by the President has on inquiry reported that the Central Vigilance Commissioner or any Vigilance Commissioner as the case may be ought to be removed The Secretariat consists of a Secretary of the rank of Additional Secretary to the Govt of India one officer of the rank of Joint Secretary to the Govt of India ten officers of the rank of Director/Deputy Secretary four Under Secretaries and office staff• CVC is only an advisory body Central Government Departments are free to either accept or reject CVC’s advice in corruption cases13• CVC does not have adequate resources compared with number of complaints that it receives It is a very small set up with a sanctioned staff strength of 2991 Whereas it is supposed to check corruption in more than 1500 central government departments and ministries14• CVC cannot direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer of the level of Joint Secretary and above on its own Such a permission has to be obtained from the concerned department• CVC does not have powers to register criminal case It deals only with vigilance or disciplinary casesAppointments to CVC are indirectly under the control of Govt of India though the leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha is a member of the Committee to select CVC and VCs But the Committee considers candidates put up before it These candidates are decided by the GovernmentFRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTUREQ267 With reference to the Dravidian architecture What are Agamas A These are the collection of the scriptures constituting the methods of temple constructionB These are the code of conduct that is to be followed by the BhikshusC These are the texts describing the discourse of the tirthankaraD These are the manuscripts in Indo-Aryan languages describing the spread of the templesof the southern IndiaAns ATraditional Dravidian architecture and symbolism are also based on Agamas The Agamas are non-vedic in origin and have been dated either as post-vedic texts or as pre-vedic compositionsThe Agamas are a collection of Tamil and Sanskrit scriptures chiefly constituting the methods of temple construction and creation of murti worship means of deities philosophical doctrines meditative practices attainment of sixfold desires and four kinds of yogaFRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTUREQ266 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the scripts/texts of the Dravidian style 1 Mayamata and Manasara shilpa texts describes the art of building in India in south and central India2 Brihat-samhita is the widely cited ancient Sanskrit manual describing the design and construction of Nagara style of Hindu templesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns BMayamata and Manasara shilpa texts estimated to be in circulation by 5th to 7th century AD is a guidebook on Dravidian style of Vastu Shastradesign construction sculpture and joinery paddhati is another text from the 9th century describing the art of building in India in south and central IndiaIn north India Brihat-samhita by Varāhamihira is the widely cited ancient Sanskrit manual from 6th century describing the design and construction of Nagara style of Hindu templesFRAMED FROM NIOS-INDIAN CULTUREQ265 Consider the following :1 Undavalli caves : Madhya Pradesh2 Ramatheertham : Andhra Pradesh3 Varaha Cave Temple : MamallapuramSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D Only 3Ans BRock-cut monuments in India• Aihole has 3 Jaina temple• Badami Cave Temples• Bagh Caves• Ellora Caves has 12 Buddhist 17 Hindu and 5 Jain temples19• Kanheri Caves• Lenyadri Caves• Mahabalipuram• Pancha Rathas• Kazhuku Malai• Pandavleni Caves• Pitalkhora• Undavalli caves Andhra Pradesh• Varaha Cave Temple at Mamallapuram• Masroor Temple at Kangra• Bojjannakonda Buddhist Site Andhra Pradesh• Guntupalle Buddhist Site Andhra Pradesh• Ramatheertham Andhra PradeshFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ264 Which among the following is/are the members of the Eurasian Economic Union 1 Belarus2 Russia3 Kazakhstan4 UzbekistanSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 123B 3 amp 4C 234D 1234Ans AIt is an economic union of states located primarily in northern Eurasia A treaty aiming for the establishment of the EAEU was signed on 29 May 2014 by the leaders of Belarus Kazakhstan and Russia and came into force on 1 January 2015Treaties aiming for Armenia’s and Kyrgyzstan’s accession to the Eurasian Economic Union were signed on 9 October and 23 December 2014 respectively Armenia’s accession treaty came into force on 2 January 2015Kyrgyzstan’s accession treaty came into effect on 6 August 20151112 It participated in the EAEU from the day of its establishment as an acceding stateThe day-to-day work of the EAEU is done through the Eurasian Economic Commission the executive body which is a supranational body similar to European Commission There is also a judicial body – the Court of the EAEUThe Eurasian Economic Union is located at the eastern end of Europe bounded by the Arctic in the north the Pacific Ocean to the east and East Asia the Middle East and part of Central Asiato the southThe council is composed of the Vice Prime Ministers of the member states The collegium is composed of twelve commissioners one of which is the Chairman of the boardFRAMED FROM NIOS- INDIAN CULTUREQ263 Which of the following is/are not depicted in the Rajput paintings 1 Stories of Krishna2 Ragas amp Ragnis3 Deeds of Hamza4 Deeds of BaburSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 123B 234C 3 amp 4D Only 4Ans CRajput painting also called Rajasthani painting evolved and flourished in the royal courts of Rajputana in India Each Rajputana kingdom evolved a distinct style but with certain common features Rajput paintings depict a number of themes events of epics like the Ramayana Miniatures in manuscripts or single sheets to be kept in albums were the preferred medium of Rajput painting but many paintings were done on the walls of palaces inner chambers of the forts havelis particularly the havelis of Shekhawati the forts and palaces built by ShekhawatRajputsThe colours were extracted from certain minerals plant sources conch shells and were even derived by processing precious stones Gold and silver were used The preparation of desired colours was a lengthy process sometimes taking weeks Brushes used were very fineElements such as distinct portraiture utilized by popular Mughal artists Govardhan Hashim etc are not found in Rajput works Likewise Rajput techniques are not predominantly seen in Mughal paintingsFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ262 Which among the following can remove cyanobacterial blooms from water-based systems 1 Calcium hypochlorite2 Copper sulphate3 SimazineSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 2B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DSeveral chemicals can eliminate cyanobacterial blooms from water-based systems They include: calcium hypochlorite copper sulphate cupricide and simazineCyanobacteria can produce neurotoxins cytotoxins endotoxins and hepatotoxins Oncolites are sedimentary structures composed of oncoids which are layered structures formed by cyanobacterial growth Oncolites are similar to stromatolites but instead of forming columns they form approximately spherical structures that were not attached to the underlying substrate as they formedCyanobacteria use the energy of sunlight to drive photosynthesis a process where the energy of light is used to synthesize organic compounds from carbon dioxide Because they are aquatic organisms they typically employ several strategies which are collectively known as a carbon concentrating mechanism to aid in the acquisition of inorganic carbon CO2or bicarbonate Cyanobacteria can be found in almost every terrestrial and aquatic habitat—oceans fresh water damp soil temporarily moistened rocks in deserts bare rock and soil and even Antarctic rocks They can occur as planktonic cells or form phototrophic biofilms They are found in almost every endolithic ecosystemA few are endosymbionts in lichens plants various protists or sponges and provide energy for the host Some live in the fur of sloths providing a form of camouflageAquatic cyanobacteria are known for their extensive and highly visible blooms that can form in both freshwater and marine environmentsFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ261 Which among the following is/are the right tributary of the river ganga 1 Kosi2 Gandak3 Yamuna4 RamgangaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 234C Only 2 amp 3D Only 3Ans DGanga :gtLeft tributaries: Ramganga Gomati Ghaghar Gandak KosigtRight tributaries: Yamuna SonHugliFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ260 Which among the following plants is/are considered as the Weeds 1 Dandelion2 Burdrock3 AmarnathSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans DWeeds : Dandelion Burdrock Lamb’s quarter Amarnath CornockleMany plants known as weeds can have beneficial properties A number of weeds such as the dandelion Taraxacum and lamb’s quarter are edible and their leaves or roots may be used for food or herbal medicine Burdock is common over much of the world and is sometimes used to make soup and medicine in East AsiaAn example of a crop weed that is grown in gardens is the corncockle Agrostemma githago which was a common weed in European wheat fields but is now sometimes grown as a garden plantWeeds may also act as a living mulch providing ground cover that reduces moisture loss and prevents erosion Weeds may also improve soil fertility dandelions for example bring up nutrients like calcium and nitrogen from deep in the soil with their tap root and clover hosts nitrogen-fixing bacteria in its roots fertilizing the soil directly Weed control is important in agriculture Methods include hand cultivation with hoes powered cultivation with cultivators smothering with mulch lethal wilting with high heat burning or chemical attack with herbicidesFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ259 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve 1 It is composed of Neyyar amp Peppara Wildlife Sanctuaries only2 This biosphere reserve is dominated by Asian elephants amp Nilgiri TahrSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are Biosphere Reserve became part of World Network of Biosphere Reserves in 2016 Is also under UNESCO’s world list of biosphere reserveIt is composed of Neyyar Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries and their adjoining areas of Achencoil Thenmala Konni Punalur Thiruvananthapuram Divisions and Agasthyavanam Special Division in Kerala9 Inclusion of adjoining areas of Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu has been approvedABR includes the Indian Ecoregions of South Western Ghats moist deciduous forests South Western Ghats montane rain forestsand SholaRare animals include the tiger Asian Elephant and Nilgiri Tahr Agastyamalai is also home to the KanikaranKanikkarans are the Original tribal Settlers in Agasthyamalai Biosphere ReserveFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ258 Which among the following is/are true in context with the 5-star rated celing fans 1 These are 50 more energy efficient as compared to the conventional fans2 These are rated at 75 watts as compared to earlier fans at 50 wattsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DThese fans are 30 more energy efficient as compared to conventional fansThe earlier fans were rated at 75 Watts but the new fans are rated at 50 Watts 30 savings FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ257 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Gene Transfer Format 1 It is a tab-delimited doc format specific to the gene information2 It reduces problems with the interchange of data between groupsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns BThe Gene transfer format GTF is a file format used to hold information about gene structure It is a tab-delimited text format based on the general feature format GFF but contains some additional conventions specific to gene information A significant feature of the GTF is that it is validatable: given a sequence and a GTF file one can check that the format is correct This significantly reduces problems with the interchange of data between groupsFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ256 With reference to the geographic knowledge what are Phantom islands A These are the islands that are situated beyond the continental shelf of the oceanB These are the lost lands that were existing during prehistory but disappeared as a result of catastrophic geological phenomena C These are the volcanic islands on the edge of the Indian and Burmese tectonic platesD These are the land masses formerly believed to exist in the historical age but to have been discredited as a result of expanding geographic knowledgeAns DPhantom islands as opposed to lost lands are land masses formerly believed by cartographers to exist in the historical age but to have been discredited as a result of expanding geographic knowledge Terra Australis is a phantom continent While a few phantom islands originated from literary works an example is Ogygia from Homer’s Odyssey most phantom islands are the result of navigational errorsFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ255 With reference to the news which of the following is correct with respect to the ADDU Declaration A It is the declaration by the BRICS members to improve the global economic situation and reforming financial institutionsB It is a twenty points declaration issued by the SSARC members with the aim of building bridgesC It is the declaration in the Paris summit to reduce the greenhouse gas emissions D It is the declaration issued in the Maldives conference highlighting the terrorist amp social issuesAns B• Addu is the second largest city of Mamldives capital is Male where 17th SAARC conference was held September 2011• Theme of this Addu summit : Building Bridges• The leaders of SAARC Nations issued a 20-points declaration here which is known as “Addu Declaration”FRAMED FROM THE HINDUQ254 Which of the following is/are correct with respect to the Generic drugs 1 These are manufactured by the private companies under the government regulations 2 These contain the same active ingredients as brand formulations but with reduced excipientsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D |
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Dear visitors! Due to the transition to the unified platform of the Russian Foreign Ministry website http://rusembindiacom is in archive mode the materials are not updated The new official website of the Embassy of the Russian Federation in the Republic of India is indiamidru the official email address is rusembindiamidru |
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ДИСК НАЗЫВАЮЩИЙСЯ ЭЛЕКТРОИНСТРУМЕНТОМ ДЛЯ СОРЕВНОВАНИЙ AMT RUSSIAN CHALLENGE |
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The Washington Accord is an international accreditation agreement for professional engineering academic degrees between the bodies responsible for accreditation in its signatory countries The Washington Accord covers undergraduate engineering degrees under Outcome-based education approach Engineering technology and postgraduate programs are not covered by the accord although some engineering technology programs are covered under the Sydney Accord and the Dublin Accord Only qualifications awarded after the signatory country or region became part of the Washington Accord are recognized The accord is not directly responsible for the licensing of Professional Engineers and the registration of Chartered Engineers but it does cover the academic requirements that are part of the licensing processes in signatory countries India became the permanent member of the Washington Accord It is an esteemed international treaty on engineering studies and mobility of engineers across signatory countries including the US the UK and Australia signatories are: Australia Canada Chinese Taipei Hong Kong China India Ireland Japan Korea Malaysia New Zealand Russia Singapore South Africa Turkey the United Kingdom and the United States The treaty covers undergraduate engineering degrees under Outcome-based education approach The accord doesn’t take into account engineering technology and postgraduate programs Q194 What is meant by Deficit Financing A Capital expenditure on items of public construction public borrowing amp public enterprises B Difference in borrowing amp external amp internal resourcesC Government’s expenditure on excess of revenue which causes a shortage in the budget therby making the government to finance its plans by borrowing D Difference of the total expenditure amp income from all the sourcesAns C |
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There’s no doubt that the Russians did interfere in the election and I think the interference although not yet quantified if fully investigated would show that Trump didn’t actually win the election in 2016… He lost the election and he was put into office because the Russians interfered on his behalf” Former President Jimmy Carter “Look he was a nice man He was a terrible president He’s a Democrat And it’s a typical talking point He’s loyal to the Democrats And I guess you should be…as everybody now understands I won not because of Russia not because of anybody but myself… He’s been badly trashed He’s like the forgotten president And I understand why they say that He was not a good president” Popular vote loser and Putin pawn Donald Trump counter-attacks President Carter |
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Credible nuclear deterrence of invasions and conventional wars reduce the risk of large conventional and nuclear wars occurring through escalation of invasions such as the invasion of Belgium in 1914 and the invasion of Poland in 1939 of surprise attacks like those against France in 1940 and of Russia and Pearl Harbor in 1941 Afghanistan in 1979 Kuwait in 1990 or Crimea in 2014 Contrary to irrational pseudo-scientific propaganda the number of nuclear weapons is smaller than the millions of conventional weapons used in large wars and the correct scaling shows that the overall effects are similar not massively different as often claimed for political propaganda by enemies of peace Furthermore the greater time delay of effects from nuclear weapons over the damaged area increases the efficiency of cheap civil defence countermeasures as compared to conventional weapons We need credible effects of nuclear weapons for real world peace: peace through tested proved and practical declassified deterrence and countermeasures against collateral damage Credible deterrence through simple effective protection against concentrated and dispersed invasions and aerial attacks Discussions of the facts as opposed to inaccurate misleading lies of the disarm or be annihilated political dogma variety Hiroshima and Nagasaki anti-nuclear propaganda debunked by the hard facts Walls not wars Walls bring people together by stopping divisive terrorists In conclusion credible nuclear deterrence of conventional war offers a beautiful opportunity to create a peaceful world free from fear peddling ranting dictators The only oppositions you will meet will come from authoritarian obsessed fear peddling myth makers If they can’t tell the truth and face the facts why listen to them Please see our post on the need to deter not only direct threats from nuclear attacks but also conventional wars and invasions that can escalate into nuclear wars as proved by the use of nuclear weapons in WWII for example after they were developed during the war itself and did not trigger or provoke the war linked here here here and here here here and the true scaling law equivalence between a few thousand nuclear weapons and the several million tons of small conventional weapons in a non-nuclear world war as proved by our post summarising key points in Herman Kahn’s much-abused call for credible deterrence On Thermonuclear War linked here Peace comes through tested proved and practical declassified countermeasures against the effects of nuclear weapons chemical weapons and conventional weapons Credible deterrence to end invasions and wars comes through simple effective protection against invasions like low yield tactical weapons and walls and civil defence against collateral damage Peace comes through discussions of the facts as opposed to inaccurate misleading lies of the disarm or be annihilated political dogma variety which are designed to exploit fear to close down criticisms of errors in mainstream orthodoxy In particular please see the post linked here on EMP results from an actual Russian 300 kt test at 290 km altitude over unwarned civilian infrastructure in Kazakhstan on 22 October 1962 which caused no injuries or deaths whatsoever contrary to all of Jeremy Corbyn and CND style lying propaganda that any use of nuclear weapons on civilians would automatically kill millions but shut down the communications and power supply lines! This is not secret but does not make newspaper headlines to debunk CND style dogmas on the alleged incredibility of nuclear deterrence Hiroshima’s air raid shelters were unoccupied because Japanese Army officers were having breakfast when B29s were detected far away says Yoshie Oka the operator of the Hiroshima air raid sirens on 6 August 1945 In a sample of 1881 burns cases in Hiroshima only 17 or 09 percent were due to ignited clothing and 15 or 07 were due to the firestorm flames Dr Harold L Brode’s new book Nuclear Weapons in 800 war migrants drowned on 22 April by EU policy: Photographed fireball shielding by cloud cover in Nuclear weapons effects firestorm and nuclear w Proved 975 survival in completely demolished houses How to achieve peace through tested proved and practical declassified countermeasures against the effects of nuclear weapons chemical weapons and conventional weapons Credible deterrence through simple effective protection against invasions and collateral damage Discussions of the facts as opposed to inaccurate misleading lies of the disarm or be annihilated political dogma variety Hiroshima and Nagasaki anti-nuclear propaganda debunked by the hard facts Walls not wars Walls bring people together by stopping attacks by divide and rule style divisive terrorists contrary to simplistic Vatican propaganda There has never been a war yet which if the facts had been put calmly before the ordinary folk could not have been prevented – British Foreign Secretary Ernest Bevin House of Commons Debate on Foreign Affairs Hansard 23 November 1945 column 786 unfortunately secret Cabinet committees called democracy for propaganda purposes have not been quite so successful in preventing war Protection is needed against collateral civilian damage and contamination in conventional chemical and nuclear attack with credible low yield clean nuclear deterrence against conventional warfare which in reality not science fiction costs far more lives Anti scientific media who promulgate and exploit terrorism for profit censor 1 vital effective civil defense knowledge and 2 effective safe low yield air burst clean weapons like the Mk54 and W79 which deter conventional warfare and escalation allowing arms negotiations from a position of strength This helped end the Cold War in the 1980s Opposing civil defense and nuclear weapons that really deter conventional war is complacent and dangerousWar and coercion dangers have not stemmed from those who openly attack mainstream mistakes but from those who camouflage themselves as freedom fighters to ban such free criticism itself by making the key facts seem taboo without even a proper debate let alone financing research into unfashionable alternatives Research and education in non-mainstream alternatives is needed before an unprejudiced debate to establish all the basic facts for a real debate “Wisdom itself cannot flourish nor even truth be determined without the give and take of debate and criticism” – Robert Oppenheimer quotation from the H-bomb TV debate hosted by Eleanor Roosevelt 12 February 1950“Apologies for freedom I can’t handle this! Deal from strength or get crushed every time Freedom demands liberty everywhere I’m thinking you see it’s not so easy But we have to stand up tall and answer freedom’s call!” – Freedom Kids CONVENTIONAL WARS HAVE KILLED TENS OF MILLIONS OF PEOPLE NUCLEAR WEAPONS CAN RAPIDLY DETER THIS REAL THREAT TO PEACE WITH MINIMAL CASUALTIES ‘During the critical period 8-15 February 1968 the US command realized that conventional bombing was not sufficiently effective The air campaign dropped over 110000 tons of bombs and napalm on the area around Khe Sanh during the 77-day siege the most heavily bombed target in the history of conventional warfare’ – W C Yengst S J Lukasik and M A Jensen Nuclear Weapons that went to War SAID report DSWA-TR-97-25 September 1998 quoted in the 2015 book by the secret Capabilities of Nuclear Weapons editor Dr Harold L Brode Nuclear Weapons in the Cold War page 287 British Nuclear Test Civil Defence ResearchRichard P Feynman ‘This Unscientific Age’ in The Meaning of It All Penguin Books London 1998 pages 106-9: ‘Now I say if a man is absolutely honest and wants to protect the populace from the effects of radioactivity which is what our scientific friends often say they are trying to do then he should work on the biggest number not on the smallest number and he should try to point out that the natural cosmic radioactivity which is absorbed by living in the city of Denver is so much more serious than the smaller doses from nuclear explosions that all the people of Denver ought to move to lower altitudes’“If a man reads or hears a criticism of anything in which he has an interest watch if he shows concern with any question except ‘is it true’ he thereby reveals that his own attitude is unscientific Likewise if he judges an idea not on its merits but with reference to the author of it if he criticizes it as ‘heresy’ if he argues that authority must be right because it is authority The path of truth is paved with critical doubt and lighted by the spirit of objective enquiry the majority of people have resented what seems in retrospect to have been purely matter of fact nothing has aided the persistence of falsehood and the evils resulting from it more than the unwillingness of good people to admit the truth the tendency continues to be shocked by natural comment and to hold certain things too ‘sacred’ to think about How rarely does one meet anyone whose first reaction to anything is to ask: ‘is it true’ Yet unless that is a man’s natural reaction it shows that truth is not uppermost in his mind and unless it is true progress is unlikely” – Sir Basil Henry Liddell Hart Why Don’t We Learn from History PEN Books 1944 revised edition Allen and Unwin 1972 Civil defense countermeasures to be taken seriously by the population require the publication of solid facts with the scientific evidence to support those facts against political propaganda to the contrary Secrecy over the effects of nuclear weapons tests does not hinder plutonium and missile production by rogue states but it does hinder civil defense countermeasures by permitting lying political propaganda to go unopposed see linked post here Terrorists successfully prey on the vulnerable The political spreading of lies concerning threats and the alleged ‘impossibility’ of all countermeasures terrorizing the population in order to ‘justify’ supposedly pro-peace disarmament policies in the 1920s-1930s resulted in the secret rearmament of fascist states which were terrorizing the Jews and others eventually leading to World War II Political exaggerations about nuclear weapons effects today: 1 encourage terrorist states and other groups to secretly invest in such weapons to use either for political intimidation or for future use against countries which have no countermeasures and 2 falsely dismiss in the eyes of the media and the public cheap relatively effective countermeasures like civil defense and ABM Therefore doom-mongering media lies make us vulnerable to the proliferation threat today in two ways just as they led to both world wars: 1 Exaggerations of offensive technology and a down-playing of simple countermeasures such as trenches encouraged belligerent states to start World War I in the false belief that modern technology implied overwhelming firepower which would terminate the war quickly on the basis of offensive preparedness: if the facts about simple trench countermeasures against shelling and machine guns during the American Civil War had been properly understood it would have been recognised by Germany that a long war based on munitions production and logistics would be necessary and war would have been seen to be likely to lead to German defeat against countries with larger overseas allies and colonies that could supply munitions and the other resources required to win a long war 2 Exaggerations of aerial bombardment technology after World War I led to disarmament ‘supported by’ false claims that it was impossible to have any defense against a perceived threat of instant annihilation from thousands of aircraft carrying gas and incendiary bombs encouraging fascists to secretly rearm in order to successfully take advantage of the fear and vulnerability caused by this lying political disarmament propaganda Contrived dismissal of civil defense by Marxist “Cambridge Scientists Anti-War Group” bigots: a appeased war-mongering enemies and b maximised war mortality rates Idealism kills Super effective fully proof-tested cheap civil defense makes nuclear deterrence credible to stop conventional war devastation by avoiding collateral damage tit-for-tat retaliation and escalation Historically it has been proved that having weapons is not enough to guarantee a reasonable measure of safety from terrorism and rogue states countermeasures are also needed both to make any deterrent credible and to negate or at least mitigate the effects of a terrorist attack Some people who wear seatbelts die in car crashes some people who are taken to hospital in ambulances even in peace-time die Sometimes lifebelts and lifeboats cannot save lives at sea This lack of a 100 success rate in saving lives doesn’t disprove the value of everyday precautions or of hospitals and medicine Hospitals don’t lull motorists into a false sense of security causing them to drive faster and cause more accidents Like-minded ‘arguments’ against ABM and civil defense are similarly vacuous ‘As long as the threat from Iran persists we will go forward with a missile system that is cost-effective and proven If the Iranian threat is eliminated we will have a stronger basis for security and the driving force for missile-defense construction in Europe will be removed’ – President Obama Prague Castle Czech Republic 4 April 2009 Before 9/11 Caspar Weinberger was quizzed by skeptical critics on the BBC News program Talking Point Friday May 4 2001: Caspar Weinberger quizzed on new US Star Wars ABM plans: ‘The ABM treaty was in 1972 The theory supporting the ABM treaty which prohibits ABM thus making nations vulnerable to terrorism that it will prevent an arms race is perfect nonsense because we have had an arms race all the time we have had the ABM treaty and we have seen the greatest increase in proliferation of nuclear weapons that we have ever had So the ABM treaty preventing an arms race is total nonsense ‘You have to understand that without any defences whatever you are very vulnerable It is like saying we don’t like chemical warfare – we don’t like gas attacks – so we are going to give up and promise not to have any defences ever against them and that of course would mean then we are perfectly safe ‘The Patriot was not a failure in the Gulf War – the Patriot was one of the things which defeated the Scud and in effect helped us win the Gulf War One or two of the shots went astray but that is true of every weapon system that has ever been invented ‘The fact that a missile defence system wouldn’t necessarily block a suitcase bomb is certainly not an argument for not proceeding with a missile defence when a missile that hits can wipe out hundreds of thousands of lives in a second ‘The curious thing about it is that missile defence is not an offensive weapon system – missile defence cannot kill anybody Missile defence can help preserve and protect your people and our allies and the idea that you are somehow endangering people by having a defence strikes me almost as absurd as saying you endanger people by having a gas mask in a gas attack ‘President Bush said that we were going ahead with the defensive system but we would make sure that nobody felt we had offensive intentions because we would accompany it by a unilateral reduction of our nuclear arsenal It seems to me to be a rather clear statement that proceeding with the missile defence system would mean fewer arms of this kind ‘You have had your arms race all the time that the ABM treaty was in effect and now you have an enormous accumulation and increase of nuclear weapons and that was your arms race promoted by the ABM treaty Now if you abolish the ABM treaty you are not going to get another arms race – you have got the arms already there – and if you accompany the missile defence construction with the unilateral reduction of our own nuclear arsenal then it seems to me you are finally getting some kind of inducement to reduce these weapons’ Before the ABM system is in place and afterwards if ABM fails to be 100 effective in an attack or is bypassed by terrorists using a bomb in a suitcase or in a ship civil defense is required and can be effective at saving lives: ‘Paradoxically the more damaging the effect that is the farther out its lethality stretches the more can be done about it because in the last fall of its power it covers vast areas where small mitigations will save very large numbers of people’ – Peter Laurie Beneath the City Streets: A Private Inquiry into the Nuclear Preoccupations of Government Penguin 1974 ‘The purpose of a book is to save people the time and effort of digging things out for themselves we have tried to leave the reader with something tangible – what a certain number of calories roentgens etc means in terms of an effect on the human being we must think of the people we are writing for’ – Dr Samuel Glasstone DSc letter dated 1 February 1957 to Colonel Dent L Lay Chief Weapons Effects Division US Armed Forces Special Weapons Project Washington DC pages 2 and 4 concerning the preparation of The Effects of Nuclear Weapons Glasstone and Dolan stated in The Effects of Nuclear Weapons 1977 Table 1217 on page 546 that the median distance in Hiroshima for survival after 20 days was 012 miles for people in concrete buildings and 13 miles for people standing outdoors Therefore the median distances for survival in modern city buildings and in the open differed by a factor of 11 for Hiroshima the difference in areas was thus a factor of 112 or about 120 Hence taking cover in modern city buildings reduces the casualty rates and the risks of being killed by a factor of 120 for Hiroshima conditions contrary to popular media presented political propaganda that civil defence is hopeless This would reduce 120000 casualties to 1000 casualties From Dr Glasstone’s Effects of Nuclear Weapons 1962/64 ed page 631: ‘At distances between 03 and 04 mile from ground zero in Hiroshima the average survival rate for at least 20 days after the nuclear explosion was less than 20 percent Yet in two reinforced concrete office buildings at these distances almost 90 percent of the nearly 800 occupants survived more than 20 days although some died later of radiation injury Furthermore of approximately 3000 school students who were in the open and unshielded within a mile of ground zero at Hiroshima about 90 percent were dead or missing after the explosion But of nearly 5000 students in the same zone who were shielded in one way or another only 26 percent were fatalities survival in Hiroshima was possible in buildings at such distances that the overpressure in the open was 15 to 20 pounds per square inch it is evident that the area over which protection could be effective in saving lives is roughly eight to ten times as great as that in which the chances of survival are small’ Lord Mayhew House of Lords debate on Civil Defence General Local Authority Functions Regulations Hansard vol 444 cc 523-49 1 November 1983: ‘ if there had been effective civil defence at Hiroshima probably thousands of lives would have been saved and much human suffering would have been avoided There is no question about it ’ Since the 1977 update by Glasstone and Dolan extensive new updates to EM-1 for a further revised edition of The Effects of Nuclear Weapons have not actually been published with unlimited public distribution due to President Carter’s 1979 executive order which transferred responsibility for civil defense from the jurisdiction of the US Department of Defense’s Defense Civil Preparedness Agency to the new agency which is not an Agency of the US Department of Defense and is not concerned with the analysis of nuclear weapons test effects data the Federal Emergency Management Agency However the February 1997 US Department of Defense’s Defense Special Weapons Agency 0602715H RDTampE Budget Item Justification Sheet R-2 Exhibit states that a revision of Glasstone and Dolan’s unclassified Effects of Nuclear Weapons was budgeted for 1997-9: “FY 1997 Plans: Provide text to update Glasstone’s book The Effects of Nuclear Weapons the standard reference for nuclear weapons effects Update the unclassified textbook entitled The Effects of Nuclear Weapons Continue revision of Glasstone’s book The Effects of Nuclear Weapons the standard reference for nuclear weapons effects FY1999 Plans Disseminate updated The Effects of Nuclear Weapons” The new publications are either classified or unclassified with limited distribution restrictions eg Bridgman’s Introduction to the Physics of Nuclear Weapons Effects which includes several chapters on nuclear weapons design to enable initial radiation outputs to be calculated precisely which prevents up-to-date basic nuclear effects information to justify civil defense against the latest nuclear threats from being widely disseminated the books are printed for use only by government agencies The problem with this approach is that widespread public understanding of the best information for civil defense countermeasures is prevented ‘The evidence from Hiroshima indicates that blast survivors both injured and uninjured in buildings later consumed by fire caused by the blast overturning charcoal braziers used for breakfast in inflammable wooden houses filled with easily ignitable bamboo furnishings and paper screens were generally able to move to safe areas following the explosion Of 130 major buildings studied by the US Strategic Bombing Survey 107 were ultimately burned out Of those suffering fire about 20 percent were burning after the first half hour The remainder were consumed by fire spread some as late as 15 hours after the blast This situation is not unlike the one our computer-based fire spread model described for Detroit’ – Defense Civil Preparedness Agency US Department of Defense DCPA Attack Environment Manual Chapter 3: What the Planner Needs to Know About Fire Ignition and Spread report CPG 2-1A3 June 1973 Panel 27 The Effects of the Atomic Bomb on Hiroshima Japan US Strategic Bombing Survey Pacific Theatre report 92 volume 2 May 1947 secret: Volume one page 14: “ the city lacked buildings with fire-protective features such as automatic fire doors and automatic sprinkler systems” and pages 26-28 state the heat flash in Hiroshima was only: “ capable of starting primary fires in exposed easily combustible materials such as dark cloth thin paper or dry rotted wood exposed to direct radiation at distances usually within 4000 feet of the point of detonation AZ” Volume two examines the firestorm and the ignition of clothing by the thermal radiation flash in Hiroshima: Page 24: “Scores of persons throughout all sections of the city were questioned concerning the ignition of clothing by the flash from the bomb Ten school boys were located during the study who had been in school yards about 6200 feet east and 7000 feet west respectively from AZ air zero These boys had flash burns on the portions of their faces which had been directly exposed to rays of the bomb The boys’ stories were consistent to the effect that their clothing apparently of cotton materials ‘smoked’ but did not burst into flame a boy’s coat started to smoulder from heat rays at 3800 feet from AZ” Contrast this to the obfuscation and vagueness in Glasstone The Effects of Nuclear Weapons! Page 88: “Ignition of the City Only directly exposed surfaces were flash burned Measured from GZ flash burns on wood poles were observed at 13000 feet granite was roughened or spalled by heat at 1300 feet and vitreous tiles on roofs were blistered at 4000 feet six persons who had been in reinforced-concrete buildings within 3200 feet of air zero stated that black cotton blackout curtains were ignited by radiant heat dark clothing was scorched and in some cases reported to have burst into flame from flash heat although as the 1946 unclassified USSBS report admits most immediately beat the flames out with their hands without sustaining injury because the clothing was not drenched in gasoline unlike peacetime gasoline tanker road accident victims “ but a large proportion of over 1000 persons questioned was in agreement that a great majority of the original fires was started by debris falling on kitchen charcoal fires by industrial process fires or by electric short circuits Hundreds of fires were reported to have started in the centre of the city within 10 minutes after the explosion Of the total number of buildings investigated 135 buildings are listed 107 caught fire and in 69 instances the probable cause of initial ignition of the buildings or their contents was as follows: 1 8 by direct radiated heat from the bomb primary fire 2 8 by secondary sources and 3 53 by fire spread from exposed wooden buildings” ‘It is true that the Soviets have tested nuclear weapons of a yield higher than that which we thought necessary but the 100-megaton bomb of which they spoke two years ago does not and will not change the balance of strategic power The United States has chosen deliberately to concentrate on more mobile and more efficient weapons with lower but entirely sufficient yield ’ – President John F Kennedy in his television broadcast to the American public 26 July 1963 ‘During World War II many large cities in England Germany and Japan were subjected to terrific attacks by high-explosive and incendiary bombs Yet when proper steps had been taken for the protection of the civilian population and for the restoration of services after the bombing there was little if any evidence of panic It is the purpose of this book to state the facts concerning the atomic bomb and to make an objective scientific analysis of these facts It is hoped that as a result although it may not be feasible completely to allay fear it will at least be possible to avoid panic’ – Dr George Gamow the big bang cosmologist Dr Samuel Glasstone DSc Executive Editor of the book and Professor Joseph O Hirschfelder The Effects of Atomic Weapons Chapter 1 p 1 Paragraph 13 US Department of Defense September 1950 ‘The consequences of a multiweapon nuclear attack would certainly be grave Nevertheless recovery should be possible if plans exist and are carried out to restore social order and to mitigate the economic disruption’ – Philip J Dolan editor of Nuclear Weapons Employment FM 101-31 1963 Capabilities of Nuclear Weapons DNA-EM-1 1972 and The Effects of Nuclear Weapons 1977 Stanford Research Institute Appendix A of the US National Council on Radiological protection NCRP symposium The Control of Exposure to the Public of Ionising Radiation in the Event of Accident or Attack 1981 ‘Suppose the bomb dropped on Hiroshima had been 1000 times as powerful It could not have killed 1000 times as many people but at most the entire population of Hiroshima regarding the hype about various nuclear overkill exaggerations there is enough water in the oceans to drown everyone ten times’ – Professor Brian Martin PhD physics ‘The global health effects of nuclear war’ Current Affairs Bulletin Vol 59 No 7 December 1982 pp 14-26 In 1996 half a century after the nuclear detonations data on cancers from the Hiroshima and Nagasaki survivors was published by D A Pierce et al of the Radiation Effects Research Foundation RERF Radiation Research vol 146 pp 1-27 Science vol 272 pp 632-3 for 86572 survivors of whom 60 had received bomb doses of over 5 mSv or 500 millirem in old units suffering 4741 cancers of which only 420 were due to radiation consisting of 85 leukemias and 335 solid cancers ‘Today we have a population of 2383 radium dial painter cases for whom we have reliable body content measurements All 64 bone sarcoma cancer cases occurred in the 264 cases with more than 10 Gy 1000 rads while no sarcomas appeared in the 2119 radium cases with less than 10 Gy’ – Dr Robert Rowland Director of the Center for Human Radiobiology Bone Sarcoma in Humans Induced by Radium: A Threshold Response Proceedings of the 27th Annual Meeting European Society for Radiation Biology Radioprotection colloquies Vol 32CI 1997 pp 331-8 Zbigniew Jaworowski ‘Radiation Risk and Ethics: Health Hazards Prevention Costs and Radiophobia’ Physics Today April 2000 pp 89-90: ‘ it is important to note that given the effects of a few seconds of irradiation at Hiroshima and Nagasaki in 1945 a threshold near 200 mSv may be expected for leukemia and some solid tumors Sources: UNSCEAR Sources and Effects of Ionizing Radiation New York 1994 W F Heidenreich et al Radiat Environ Biophys vol 36 1999 p 205 and B L Cohen Radiat Res vol 149 1998 p 525 For a protracted lifetime natural exposure a threshold may be set at a level of several thousand millisieverts for malignancies of 10 grays for radium-226 in bones and probably about 15-20 Gy for lung cancer after x-ray and gamma irradiation Sources: G Jaikrishan et al Radiation Research vol 152 1999 p S149 for natural exposure R D Evans Health Physics vol 27 1974 p 497 for radium-226 H H Rossi and M Zaider Radiat Environ Biophys vol 36 1997 p 85 for radiogenic lung cancer The hormetic effects such as a decreased cancer incidence at low doses and increased longevity may be used as a guide for estimating practical thresholds and for setting standards ‘Though about a hundred of the million daily spontaneous DNA damages per cell remain unrepaired or misrepaired apoptosis differentiation necrosis cell cycle regulation intercellular interactions and the immune system remove about 99 of the altered cells Source: R D Stewart Radiation Research vol 152 1999 p 101 ‘Due to the Chernobyl nuclear accident in 1986 as of 1998 according to UNSCEAR a total of 1791 thyroid cancers in children had been registered About 93 of the youngsters have a prospect of full recovery Source: C R Moir and R L Telander Seminars in Pediatric Surgery vol 3 1994 p 182 The highest average thyroid doses in children 177 mGy were accumulated in the Gomel region of Belarus The highest incidence of thyroid cancer 179 cases per 100000 children occurred there in 1995 which means that the rate had increased by a factor of about 25 since 1987 ‘This rate increase was probably a result of improved screening not radiation! Even then the incidence rate for occult thyroid cancers was still a thousand times lower than it was for occult thyroid cancers in nonexposed populations in the US for example the rate is 13000 per 100000 persons and in Finland it is 35600 per 100000 persons Thus given the prospect of improved diagnostics there is an enormous potential for detecting yet more fictitious excess thyroid cancers In a study in the US that was performed during the period of active screening in 1974-79 it was determined that the incidence rate of malignant and other thyroid nodules was greater by 21-fold than it had been in the pre-1974 period Source: Z Jaworowski 21st Century Science and Technology vol 11 1998 issue 1 p 14’ ‘Professor Edward Lewis used data from four independent populations exposed to radiation to demonstrate that the incidence of leukemia was linearly related to the accumulated dose of radiation Outspoken scientists including Linus Pauling used Lewis’s risk estimate to inform the public about the danger of nuclear fallout by estimating the number of leukemia deaths that would be caused by the test detonations In May of 1957 Lewis’s analysis of the radiation-induced human leukemia data was published as a lead article in Science magazine In June he presented it before the Joint Committee on Atomic Energy of the US Congress’ – Abstract of thesis by Jennifer Caron Edward Lewis and Radioactive Fallout: the Impact of Caltech Biologists Over Nuclear Weapons Testing in the 1950s and 60s Caltech January 2003 Dr John F Loutit of the Medical Research Council Harwell England in 1962 wrote a book called Irradiation of Mice and Men University of Chicago Press Chicago and London discrediting the pseudo-science from geneticist Edward Lewis on pages 61 and 78-79: ‘ Mole R H Mole Brit J Radiol v32 p497 1959 gave different groups of mice an integrated total of 1000 r of X-rays over a period of 4 weeks But the dose-rate – and therefore the radiation-free time between fractions – was varied from 81 r/hour intermittently to 13 r/hour continuously The incidence of leukemia varied from 40 per cent within 15 months of the start of irradiation in the first group to 5 per cent in the last compared with 2 per cent incidence in irradiated controls … ‘What Lewis did and which I have not copied was to include in his table another group – spontaneous incidence of leukemia Brooklyn NY – who are taken to have received only natural background radiation throughout life at the very low dose-rate of 01-02 rad per year: the best estimate is listed as 2 x 10-6 like the others in the table But the value of 2 x 10-6 was not calculated from the data as for the other groups it was merely adopted By its adoption and multiplication with the average age in years of Brooklyners – 337 years and radiation dose per year of 01-02 rad – a mortality rate of 7 to 13 cases per million per year due to background radiation was deduced or some 10-20 per cent of the observed rate of 65 cases per million per year ‘All these points are very much against the basic hypothesis of Lewis of a linear relation of dose to leukemic effect irrespective of time Unhappily it is not possible to claim for Lewis’s work as others have done “It is now possible to calculate – within narrow limits – how many deaths from leukemia will result in any population from an increase in fall-out or other source of radiation” Leading article in Science vol 125 p 963 1957 This is just wishful journalese ‘The burning questions to me are not what are the numbers of leukemia to be expected from atom bombs or radiotherapy but what is to be expected from natural background Furthermore to obtain estimates of these I believe it is wrong to go to 1950s inaccurate dose rate effect ignoring data from atom bombs where the radiations are qualitatively different ie including effects from neutrons and more important the dose-rate outstandingly different’ Samuel Glasstone and Philip J Dolan The Effects of Nuclear Weapons 3rd ed 1977 pp 611-3: ‘From the earlier studies of radiation-induced mutations made with fruitflies by Nobel Laureate Hermann J Muller and other geneticists who worked on plants who falsely hyped their insect and plant data as valid for mammals like humans during the June 1957 US Congressional Hearings on fallout effects it appeared that the number or frequency of mutations in a given population is proportional to the total dose More recent experiments with mice however have shown that these conclusions need to be revised at least for mammals Mammals are biologically closer to humans in respect to DNA repair mechanisms than short-lived insects whose life cycles are too small to have forced the evolutionary development of advanced DNA repair mechanisms unlike mammals that need to survive for decades before reproducing When exposed to X-rays or gamma rays the mutation frequency in these animals has been found to be dependent on the exposure or dose rate ‘At an exposure rate of 0009 roentgen per minute 054 R/hour the total mutation frequency in female mice is indistinguishable from the spontaneous frequency Emphasis added There thus seems to be an exposure-rate threshold below which radiation-induced mutations are absent with adult female mice a delay of at least seven weeks between exposure to a substantial dose of radiation either neutrons or gamma rays and conception causes the mutation frequency in the offspring to drop almost to zero recovery in the female members of the population would bring about a substantial reduction in the ‘load’ of mutations in subsequent generations’ George Bernard Shaw cynically explains groupthink brainwashing bias: ‘We cannot help it because we are so constituted that we always believe finally what we wish to believe The moment we want to believe something we suddenly see all the arguments for it and become blind to the arguments against it The moment we want to disbelieve anything we have previously believed we suddenly discover not only that there is a mass of evidence against but that this evidence was staring us in the face all the time’ From the essay titled ‘What is Science’ by Professor Richard P Feynman presented at the fifteenth annual meeting of the National Science Teachers Association 1966 in New York City and published in The Physics Teacher vol 7 issue 6 1968 pp 313-20: ‘ great religions are dissipated by following form without remembering the direct content of the teaching of the great leaders In the same way it is possible to follow form and call it science but that is pseudo-science In this way we all suffer from the kind of tyranny we have today in the many institutions that have come under the influence of pseudoscientific advisers ‘We have many studies in teaching for example in which people make observations make lists do statistics and so on but these do not thereby become established science established knowledge They are merely an imitative form of science analogous to the South Sea Islanders’ airfields – radio towers etc made out of wood The islanders expect a great airplane to arrive They even build wooden airplanes of the same shape as they see in the foreigners’ airfields around them but strangely enough their wood planes do not fly The result of this pseudoscientific imitation is to produce experts which many of you are you teachers who are really teaching children at the bottom of the heap can maybe doubt the experts As a matter of fact I can also define science another way: Science is the belief in the ignorance of experts’ Richard P Feynman ‘This Unscientific Age’ in The Meaning of It All Penguin Books London 1998 pages 106-9: ‘Now I say if a man is absolutely honest and wants to protect the populace from the effects of radioactivity which is what our scientific friends often say they are trying to do then he should work on the biggest number not on the smallest number and he should try to point out that the natural cosmic radioactivity which is absorbed by living in the city of Denver is so much more serious than the smaller doses from nuclear explosions that all the people of Denver ought to move to lower altitudes’ Feynman is not making a point about low level radiation effects but about the politics of ignoring the massive natural background radiation dose while provoking hysteria over much smaller measured fallout pollution radiation doses Why is the anti-nuclear lobby so concerned about banning nuclear energy – which is not possible even in principle since most of our nuclear radiation is from the sun and from supernova debris contaminating the Earth from the explosion that created the solar system circa 4540 million years ago – when they could cause much bigger radiation dose reductions to the population by concentrating on the bigger radiation source natural background radiation It is possible to shield natural background radiation by the air eg by moving the population of high altitude cities to lower altitudes where there is more air between the people and outer space or banning the use of high-altitude jet aircraft The anti-nuclear lobby as Feynman stated back in the 1960s didn’t crusade to reduce the bigger dose from background radiation Instead they chose to argue against the much smaller doses from fallout pollution Feynman’s argument is still today falsely interpreted as a political statement when it is actually exposing pseudo-science and countering political propaganda It is still ignored by the media It has been pointed out by Senator Hickenlooper on page 1060 of the May-June 1957 US Congressional Hearings before the Special Subcommittee on Radiation of the Joint Committee on Atomic Energy The Nature of Radioactive Fallout and Its Effects on Man: ‘I presume all of us would earnestly hope that we never had to test atomic weapons but by the same token I presume that we want to save thousands of lives in this country every year and we could just abolish the manufacture of road accident causing automobiles ’ Dihydrogen monoxide is a potentially very dangerous chemical containing hydrogen and oxygen which has caused numerous severe burns by scalding and deaths by drowning contributes to the greenhouse effect accelerates corrosion and rusting of many metals and contributes to the erosion of our natural landscape: ‘Dihydrogen monoxide DHMO is colorless odorless tasteless and kills uncounted thousands of people every year Most of these deaths are caused by accidental inhalation of DHMO but the dangers of dihydrogen monoxide do not end there Prolonged exposure to its solid form causes severe tissue damage Symptoms of DHMO ingestion can include excessive sweating and urination and possibly a bloated feeling nausea vomiting and body electrolyte imbalance For those who have become dependent DHMO withdrawal means certain death’ From the site for the petition against dihydrogen monoxide: ‘Please sign this petition and help stop This Invisible Killer Get the government to do something now Contamination Is Reaching Epidemic Proportions! Quantities of dihydrogen monoxide have been found in almost every stream lake and reservoir in America today But the pollution is global and the contaminant has even been found in Antarctic ice DHMO has caused millions of dollars of property damage in the Midwest and recently California’ A recent example of the pseudoscientific radiation ‘education’ masquerading as science that Feynman quoted above objected to in the 1960s was published in 2009 in an article called ‘The proportion of childhood leukaemia incidence in Great Britain that may be caused by natural background ionizing radiation’ in Leukemia vol 23 2009 pp 770–776 which falsely asserts – in contradiction to the evidence that the no-threshold model is contrary to Hiroshima and Nagasaki data: ‘Risk models based primarily on studies of the Japanese atomic bomb survivors imply that low-level exposure to ionizing radiation including ubiquitous natural background radiation also raises the risk of childhood leukaemia Using two sets of recently published leukaemia risk models and estimates of natural background radiation red-bone-marrow doses received by children about 20 of the cases of childhood leukaemia in Great Britain are predicted to be attributable to this source’ The authors of this pseudoscience which is the opposite of the facts are R Wakeford Dalton Nuclear Institute University of Manchester Manchester UK G M Kendall Childhood Cancer Research Group Oxford UK and M P Little Department of Epidemiology and Public Health Imperial College London UK It is disgusting and sinful that the facts about childhood leukemia are being lied on so blatantly for non-scientific purposes and it is to be hoped that these leukemia investigators will either correct their errors or alternatively be banned from using scientific literature to promote false dogma for deception until they mend the error of their ways and repent their sins in this matter Protein P53 discovered only in 1979 is encoded by gene TP53 which occurs on human chromosome 17 P53 also occurs in other mammals including mice rats and dogs P53 is one of the proteins which continually repairs breaks in DNA which easily breaks at body temperature: the DNA in each cell of the human body suffers at least two single strand breaks every second and one double strand ie complete double helix DNA break occurs at least once every 2 hours 5 of radiation-induced DNA breaks are double strand breaks while 0007 of spontaneous DNA breaks at body temperature are double strand breaks! Cancer occurs when several breaks in DNA happen to occur by chance at nearly the same time giving several loose strand ends at once which repair proteins like P53 then repair incorrectly causing a mutation which can be proliferated somatically This cannot occur when only one break occurs because only two loose ends are produced and P53 will reattach them correctly But if low-LET ionising radiation levels are increased to a certain extent causing more single strand breaks P53 works faster and is able deal with faster breaks as they occur so that multiple broken strand ends do not arise This prevents DNA strands being repaired incorrectly and prevents cancer – a result of mutation caused by faults in DNA – from arising Too much radiation of course overloads the P53 repair mechanism and then it cannot repair breaks as they occur so multiple breaks begin to appear and loose ends of DNA are wrongly connected by P53 causing an increased cancer risk 1 DNA-damaging free radicals are equivalent to a source of sparks which is always present naturally 2 Cancer is equivalent the fire you get if the sparks are allowed to ignite the gasoline ie if the free radicals are allowed to damage DNA without the damage being repaired 3 Protein P53 is equivalent to a fire suppression system which is constantly damping out the sparks or repairing the damaged DNA so that cancer doesn’t occur In this way of thinking the ‘cause’ of cancer will be down to a failure of a DNA repairing enzyme like protein P53 to repair the damage Dr Jane Orient ‘Homeland Security for Physicians’ Journal of American Physicians and Surgeons vol 11 number 3 Fall 2006 pp 75-9: ‘In the 1960s a group of activist physicians called Physicians for Social Responsibility PSR undertook to educate the medical profession and the world about the dangers of nuclear weapons beginning with a series of articles in the New England Journal of Medicine Note that journal was publishing information for anti-civil defense propaganda back in 1949 eg the article in volume 241 pp 647-53 of New England Journal of Medicine which falsely suggests that civil defense in nuclear war would be hopeless because a single burned patient in 1947 with 40 body area burns required 42 oxygen tanks 36 pints of plasma 40 pints of whole blood 104 pints of fluids 4300 m of gauze 3 nurses and 2 doctors First only unclothed persons in direct line of sight without shadowing can get 40 body area burns from thermal radiation second duck and cover offers protection in a nuclear attack warning and G V LeRoy had already published two years earlier in JAMA volume 134 1947 pp 1143-8 that less than 5 of burns in Hiroshima and Nagasaki were caused by building and debris fires In medicine it is always possible to expend vast resources on patients who are fatally injured In a mass casualty situation doctors should not give up just because they don’t have unlimited resources as at Hiroshima and Nagasaki they would need to do their best with what they have On its website wwwpsrorg the group boasts that it led the campaign to end atmospheric nuclear testing With this campaign the linear no-threshold LNT theory of radiation carcinogenesis became entrenched It enabled activists to calculate enormous numbers of potential casualties by taking a tiny risk and multiplying it by the population of the earth As an enduring consequence the perceived risks of radiation are far out of proportion to actual risks causing tremendous damage to the American nuclear industry Efforts to save lives were not only futile but unethical: Any suggestion that nuclear war could be survivable increased its likelihood and was thus tantamount to warmongering PSR spokesmen warned ‘For the mindset that engendered and enables this situation which jeopardizes the existence of the United States as a nation as well as the lives of millions of its citizens some American physicians and certain prestigious medical organizations bear a heavy responsibility ‘Ethical physicians should stand ready to help patients to the best of their ability and not advocate sacrificing them in the name of a political agenda Even very basic knowledge especially combined with simple inexpensive advance preparations could save countless lives’ Dr Theodore B Taylor Proceedings of the Second Interdisciplinary Conference on Selected Effects of a General War DASIAC Special Report 95 July 1969 vol 2 DASA-2019-2 AD0696959 page 298 also linked here: ‘I must just say that as far as I’m concerned I have had some doubts about whether we should have had a civil defense program in the past I have no doubt whatsoever now for this reason that I’ve seen ways in which the deterrent forces can fail to hold things off so that no matter what our national leaders do criminal organizations what have you groups of people over which we have no control whatsoever can threaten other groups of people’ This point of Taylor is the key fact on the morality Suppose we disarm and abandon nuclear power That won’t stop fallout from a war terrorists or a foreign reactor blast from coming Civil defence knowledge is needed Even when America has ABM it will be vulnerable to wind carried fallout No quantity of pacifist hot air will protect people against radiation Charles J Hitch and Roland B McKean of the RAND Corporation in their 1960 book The Economics of Defense in the Nuclear Age Harvard University Press Massachusetts pp 310-57: ‘With each side possessing only a small striking force a small amount of cheating would give one side dominance over the other and the incentive to cheat and prepare a preventative attack would be strong With each side possessing say several thousand missiles a vast amount of cheating would be necessary to give one side the ability to wipe out the other’s striking capability the more extensive a disarmament agreement is the smaller the force that a violator would have to hide in order to achieve complete domination Most obviously “the abolition of the weapons necessary in a general or ‘unlimited’ war” would offer the most insuperable obstacles to an inspection plan since the violator could gain an overwhelming advantage from the concealment of even a few weapons’ Disarmament after World War I caused the following problem which led to World War II reported by Winston S Churchill in the London Daily Express newspaper of November 1 1934: ‘Germany is arming secretly illegally and rapidly A reign of terror exists in Germany to keep secret the feverish and terrible preparations they are making’ British Prime Minister Thatcher’s address to the United Nations General Assembly on disarmament on 23 June 1982 where she pointed out that in the years since the nuclear attacks on Hiroshima and Nagasaki 10 million people had been killed by 140 non-nuclear conflicts: ‘The fundamental risk to peace is not the existence of weapons of particular types It is the disposition on the part of some states to impose change on others by resorting to force against other nations Aggressors do not start wars because an adversary has built up his own strength They start wars because they believe they can gain more by going to war than by remaining at peace’ J D Culshaw the then Director of the UK Home Office Scientific Advisory Branch stated in his article in the Scientific Advisory Branch journal Fission Fragments September 1972 issue No 19 classified ‘Restricted’: ‘Apart from those who don’t want to know or can’t be bothered there seem to be three major schools of thought about the nature of a possible Third World War ‘The first group think of something like World War II but a little worse ‘ the second of World War II but very much worse ‘and the third group think in terms of a catastrophe ‘When the Armageddon concept is in favour the suggestion that such problems exist leads to way out research on these phenomena and it is sufficient to mention a new catastrophic threat eg 10 years later this was done by Sagan with nuclear winter hype which turned out to be fake because modern concrete cities can’t produce firestorms like 1940s wooden-built areas of Hamburg Dresden and Hiroshima to stimulate research into the possibilities of it arising The underlying appeal of this concept is that if one could show that the execution of all out nuclear biological or chemical warfare would precipitate the end of the world no one but a mad man would be prepared to initiate such a war However as history proves plenty of mad men end up gaining power and leading countries into wars’ J K S Clayton then Director of the UK Home Office Scientific Advisory Branch stated in his introduction entitled The Challenge – Why Home Defence to the 1977 Home Office Scientific Advisory Branch Training Manual for Scientific Advisers: ‘Since 1945 we have had nine wars – in Korea Malaysia and Vietnam between China and India China and Russia India and Pakistan and between the Arabs and Israelis on three occasions We have had confrontations between East and West over Berlin Formosa and Cuba There have been civil wars or rebellions in no less than eleven countries and invasions or threatened invasions of another five Whilst it is not suggested that all these incidents could have resulted in major wars they do indicate the aptitude of mankind to resort to a forceful solution of its problems sometimes with success ‘ It is estimated that Mongol invaders exterminated 35 million Chinese between 1311-40 without modern weapons Communist Chinese killed 263 million dissenters between 1949 and May 1965 according to detailed data compiled by the Russians on 7 April 1969 The Soviet communist dictatorship killed 40 million dissenters mainly owners of small farms between 1917-59 Conventional non-nuclear air raids on Japan killed 600000 during World War II The single incendiary air raid on Tokyo on 10 March 1945 killed 140000 people more than the total for nuclear bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki combined at much less than the 2 billion expense of the Hiroshima and Nagasaki nuclear bombs! Non-nuclear air raids on Germany during World War II killed 593000 civilians The argument that the enemy will continue stocking megaton fallout weapons if we go to cleaner weapons is irrelevant for deterrence since we’re not planning to start war just to credibly deter invasions You should not try to lower your standards of warfare to those of your enemy to appease groupthink taboos or you will end up like Britain’s leaders in the 1930s trying to collaborate with fascists for popular applause House of Lords debate Nuclear Weapons: Destructive Power published in Hansard 14 June 1988: Lord Hailsham of Saint Marylebone: ‘My Lords if we are going into the question of lethality of weapons and seek thereby to isolate the nuclear as distinct from the so-called conventional range is there not a danger that the public may think that Vimy Passchendaele and Dresden were all right—sort of tea parties—and that nuclear war is something which in itself is unacceptable’ Lord Trefgarne: ‘My Lords the policy of making Europe or the rest of the world safe for conventional war is not one that I support’ House of Commons debate Civil Defence published in Hansard 26 October 1983: Mr Bill Walker Tayside North: ‘I remind the House that more people died at Stalingrad than at Hiroshima or Nagasaki Yet people talk about fighting a conventional war in Europe as if it were acceptable One rarely sees demonstrations by the so-called peace movement against a conventional war in Europe but it could be nothing but ghastly and horrendous The casualties would certainly exceed those at Stalingrad and that cannot be acceptable to anyone who wants peace’ On 29 October 1982 Thatcher stated of the Berlin Wall: ‘In every decade since the war the Soviet leaders have been reminded that their pitiless ideology only survives because it is maintained by force But the day comes when the anger and frustration of the people is so great that force cannot contain it Then the edifice cracks: the mortar crumbles one day liberty will dawn on the other side of the wall’ On 22 November 1990 she said: ‘Today we have a Europe where the threat to our security from the overwhelming conventional forces of the Warsaw Pact has been removed where the Berlin Wall has been torn down and the Cold War is at an end These immense changes did not come about by chance They have been achieved by strength and resolution in defence and by a refusal ever to be intimidated’ ‘The case for civil defence stands regardless of whether a nuclear deterrent is necessary or not Even if the UK were not itself at war we would be as powerless to prevent fallout from a nuclear explosion crossing the sea as was King Canute to stop the tide’ – UK Home Office leaflet Civil Defence 1982 ‘ peace cannot be guaranteed absolutely Nobody can be certain no matter what policies this or any other Government were to adopt that the United Kingdom would never again be attacked Also we cannot tell what form such an attack might take Current strategic thinking suggests that if war were to break out it would start with a period of conventional hostilities of uncertain duration which might or might not escalate to nuclear conflict while nuclear weapons exist there must always be a chance however small that they will be used against us like gas bombs in World War II as a consequence of war between other nations in which we were not involved fall out from nuclear explosions could fall on a neutral Britain conventional war is not the soft option that is sometimes suggested It is also too easily forgotten that in World War II some 50 million people died and that conventional weapons have gone on killing people ever since 1945 without respite’ – – The Minister of State Scottish Office Lord Gray of Contin House of Lords debate on Civil Defence General Local Authority Functions Regulations Hansard vol 444 cc 523-49 1 November 1983 ‘All of us are living in the light and warmth of a huge hydrogen bomb 860000 miles across and 93 million miles away which is in a state of continuous explosion’ – Dr Isaac Asimov ‘Dr Edward Teller remarked recently that the origin of the earth was somewhat like the explosion of the atomic bomb’ – Dr Harold C Urey The Planets: Their Origin and Development Yale University Press New Haven 1952 p ix ‘But compared with a supernova a hydrogen bomb is the merest trifle For a supernova is equal in violence to about a million million million million hydrogen bombs all going off at the same time’ – Sir Fred Hoyle 1915-2001 The Nature of the Universe Pelican Books London 1963 p 75 ‘In fact physicists find plenty of interesting and novel physics in the environment of a nuclear explosion Some of the physical phenomena are valuable objects of research and promise to provide further understanding of nature’ – Dr Harold L Brode The RAND Corporation ‘Review of Nuclear Weapons Effects’ Annual Review of Nuclear Science Volume 18 1968 pp 153-202 ‘It seems that similarities do exist between the processes of formation of single particles from nuclear explosions and formation of the solar system from the debris of a 4 x 1028 megatons of TNT equivalent type Ia supernova explosion We may be able to learn much more about the origin of the earth by further investigating the process of radioactive fallout from the nuclear weapons tests’ – Dr Paul K Kuroda 1917-2001 University of Arkansas ‘Radioactive Fallout in Astronomical Settings: Plutonium-244 in the Early Environment of the Solar System’ pages 83-96 of Radionuclides in the Environment: A Symposium Sponsored By the Division of Nuclear Chemistry and Technology At the 155th Meeting of the American Chemical Society San Francisco California April 1-3 1968 edited by Symposium Chairman Dr Edward C Freiling 1922-2000 of the US Naval Radiological Defense Laboratory Advances in Chemistry Series No 93 American Chemical Society Washington DC 1970 Dr Paul K Kuroda 1917-2001 in 1956 correctly predicted the existence of water-moderated natural nuclear reactors in flooded uranium ore seams which were discovered in 1972 by French physicist Francis Perrin in three ore deposits at Oklo in Gabon where sixteen sites operated as natural nuclear reactors with self-sustaining nuclear fission 2000 million years ago each lasting several hundred thousand years averaging 100 kW The radioactive waste they generated remained in situ for a period of 2000000000 years without escaping They were discovered during investigations into why the U-235 content of the uranium in the ore was only 07171 instead of the normal 07202 Some of the ore in the middle of the natural reactors had a U-235 isotopic abundance of just 0440 Kuroda’s brilliant paper is entitled ‘On the Nuclear Physical Stability of the Uranium Minerals’ published in the Journal of Chemical Physics vol 25 1956 pp 781–782 and 1295–1296 A type Ia supernova explosion always yielding 4 x 1028 megatons of TNT equivalent results from the critical mass effect of the collapse of a white dwarf as soon as its mass exceeds 14 solar masses due to matter falling in from a companion star The degenerate electron gas in the white dwarf is then no longer able to support the pressure from the weight of gas which collapses thereby releasing enough gravitational potential energy as heat and pressure to cause the fusion of carbon and oxygen into heavy elements creating massive amounts of radioactive nuclides particularly intensely radioactive nickel-56 but half of all other nuclides including uranium and heavier are also produced by the ‘R’ rapid process of successive neutron captures by fusion products in supernovae explosions Type Ia supernovae occur typically every 400 years in the Milky Way galaxy On 4 July 1054 Chinese astronomers observed in the sky without optical instruments the bright supernova in the constellation Taurus which today is still visible as the Crab Nebula through telescopes The Crab Nebula debris has a diameter now of 7 light years and is still expanding at 800 miles/second The supernova debris shock wave triggers star formation when it encounters hydrogen gas in space by compressing it and seeding it with debris bright stars are observed in the Orion Halo the 300 light year diameter remains of a supernova It is estimated that when the solar system was forming 4540 million years ago a supernova occurred around 100 light years away and the heavy radioactive debris shock wave expanded at 1000 miles/second Most of the heavy elements including iron silicon and calcium in the Earth and people are the stable end products of originally radioactive decay chains from the space burst fallout of a 7 x 1026 megatons thermonuclear explosion created by fusion and successive neutron captures after the implosion of a white dwarf a supernova explosion How would a 1055 megaton hydrogen bomb explosion differ from the big bang Ignorant answers biased in favour of curved spacetime ignoring quantum gravity! abound such as claims that explosions can’t take place in ‘outer space’ disagreeing with the facts from nuclear space bursts by Russia and America in 1962 not to mention natural supernova explosions in space! and that explosions produce sound waves in air by definition! There are indeed major differences in the nuclear reactions between the big bang and a nuclear bomb But it is helpful to notice the solid physical fact that implosion systems suggest the mechanism of gravitation: in implosion TNT is well-known to produce an inward force on a bomb core but Newton’s 3rd law says there is an equal and opposite reaction force outward In fact you can’t have a radially outward force without an inward reaction force! It’s the rocket principle The rocket accelerates with force F ma forward by virtue of the recoil from accelerating the exhaust gas with force F -ma in the opposite direction! Nothing massive accelerates without an equal and opposite reaction force Applying this fact to the measured 6 x 10-10 ms-2 Hc cosmological acceleration of matter radially outward from observers in the universe which was predicted accurately in 1996 and later observationally discovered in 1999 by Perlmutter et al we find an outward force F ma and inward reaction force by the 3rd law The inward force allows quantitative predictions and is mediated by gravitons predicting gravitation in a checkable way unlike string theory which is just a landscape of 10500 different perturbative theories and so can’t make any falsifiable predictions about gravity So it seems as if nuclear explosions do indeed provide helpful analogies to natural features of the world and the mainstream lambda-CDM model of cosmology – with its force-fitted unobserved ad hoc speculative ‘dark energy’ – ignores and sweeps under the rug major quantum gravity effects which increase the physical understanding of particle physics particularly force unification and the relation of gravitation to the existing electroweak SU2 x U1 section of the Standard Model of fundamental forces Richard Lieu Physics Department University of Alabama ‘Lambda-CDM cosmology: how much suppression of credible evidence and does the model really lead its competitors using all evidence’ Even Einstein grasped the possibility that general relativity’s lambda-CDM model is at best just a classical approximation to quantum field theory at the end of his life when he wrote to Besso in 1954: ‘I consider it quite possible that physics cannot be based on the classical differential equation field principle ie on continuous structures In that case nothing remains of my entire castle in the air non-quantum gravitation theory included ’ ‘Science is the organized skepticism in the reliability of expert opinion’ – Professor Richard P Feynman quoted by Professor Lee Smolin The Trouble with Physics Houghton-Mifflin New York 2006 p 307 ‘The expression of dissenting views may not seem like much of a threat to a powerful organization yet sometimes it triggers an amazingly hostile response The reason is that a single dissenter can puncture an illusion of unanimity Among those suppressed have been the engineers who tried to point out problems with the Challenger space shuttle that caused it to blow up More fundamentally suppression is a denial of the open dialogue and debate that are the foundation of a free society Even worse than the silencing of dissidents is the chilling effect such practices have on others For every individual who speaks out numerous others decide to play it safe and keep quiet More serious than external censorship is the problem of self-censorship’ — Professor Brian Martin University of Wollongong ‘Stamping Out Dissent’ Newsweek 26 April 1993 pp 49-50 In 1896 Sir James Mackenzie-Davidson asked Wilhelm Röntgen who discovered X-rays in 1895: ‘What did you think’ Röntgen replied: ‘I did not think I investigated’ The reason Cathode ray expert J J Thomson in 1894 saw glass fluorescence far from a tube but due to prejudice expert opinion he avoided investigating that X-ray evidence! ‘Science is the organized skepticism in the reliability of expert opinion’ – Richard Feynman in Lee Smolin The Trouble with Physics Houghton-Mifflin 2006 p 307 Mathematical symbols in this blog: your computer’s browser needs access to standard character symbol sets to display Greek symbols for mathematical physics If you don’t have the symbol character sets installed the density symbol ‘r’ Rho will appear as ‘r’ and the ‘p’ Pi symbol will as ‘p’ causing confusion with the use of ‘r’ for radius and ‘p’ for momentum in formulae This problem exists with Mozilla Firefox 3 but not with Microsoft Explorer which displays Greek symbols About Me Name: nige Currently designing secure active server page ASP front ends for client SQL databases In 1982 I began programming in basic and at college learned Fortran while a physics undergraduate a decade later Afterwards I switched from mainstream physics and mathematical education to part-time programming student while working in a series of jobs including four years in credit control wwwquantumfieldtheoryorg View my complete profile From 1945-62 America tested 216 nuclear weapons in the atmosphere totalling 154 megatons with a mean yield of 713 kilotons From 1949-62 Russia tested 214 nuclear weapons in the atmosphere totalling 281 megatons with a mean yield of 131 megatons From 1952-8 Britain tested 21 nuclear weapons in the atmosphere totalling 108 megatons with a mean yield of 514 kilotons From 1960-74 France tested 46 nuclear weapons in the atmosphere totalling 114 megatons with a mean yield of 248 kilotons From 1964-80 China tested 23 nuclear weapons in the atmosphere totalling 215 megatons with a mean yield of 935 kilotons In summary from 1945-80 America Russia Britain France and China tested 520 nuclear weapons in the atmosphere totalling 4787 megatons with a mean yield of 921 kilotons Mean yield of the 5192 nuclear warheads and bombs in the deployed Russian nuclear stockpile as of January 2009: 0317 Mt Total yield: 1646 Mt Mean yield of the 4552 nuclear warheads and bombs in the deployed US nuclear stockpile as of January 2007: 0257 Mt Total yield: 1172 Mt For diffraction damage where damage areas scale as the two-thirds power of explosive yield this stockpile’s area damage potential can be compared to the 20000000 conventional bombs of 100 kg size 2 megatons of TNT equivalent total energy dropped on Germany during World War II: Total nuclear bomb blast diffraction damaged ground area/Total conventional blast diffraction damaged ground area to Germany during World War II 45520257 Mt2/3/2000000000000001 Mt2/3 1840/431 43 Thus although the entire US stockpile has a TNT energy equivalent to 586 times that of the 2 megatons of conventional bombs dropped on Germany in World War II it is only capable of causing 43 times as much diffraction type damage area because any given amount of explosive energy is far more efficient when distributed over many small explosions than in a single large explosion! Large explosions are inefficient because they cause unintended collateral damage wasting energy off the target area and injuring or damaging unintended targets! In a controlled sample of 36500 survivors 89 people got leukemia over a 40 year period above the number in the unexposed control group Data: Radiation Research volume 146 1996 pages 1-27 Over 40 years in 36500 survivors monitored there were 176 leukemia deaths which is 89 more than the control unexposed group got naturally There were 4687 other cancer deaths but that was merely 339 above the number in the control unexposed group so this is statistically a much smaller rise than the leukemia result Natural leukemia rates which are very low in any case were increased by 51 in the irradiated survivors but other cancers were merely increased by just 7 Adding all the cancers together the total was 4863 cancers virtually all natural cancer nothing whatsoever to do with radiation which is just 428 more than the unexposed control group Hence the total increase over the natural cancer rate due to bomb exposure was only 9 spread over a period of 40 years There was no increase whatsoever in genetic malformations There should be a note here about how unnatural radioactive pollution is not in space: the earth’s atmosphere is a radiation shield equivalent to being protected behind a layer of water 10 metres thick This reduces the cosmic background radiation by a factor of 100 of what it would be without the earth’s atmosphere Away from the largely uninhabited poles the Earth’s magnetic field also protects us against charged cosmic radiations which are deflected and end up spiralling around the magnetic field at high altitude in the Van Allen trapped radiation belts On the Moon for example there is no atmosphere or significant magnetic field so the natural background radiation exposure rate at solar minimum is 1 milliRoentgen per hour about 10 microSieverts/hour some 100 times that on the Earth 0010 milliRoentgen per hour or about 010 microSieverts/hour The Apollo astronauts visiting the Moon wore dosimeters and they received an average of 275 milliRoentgens about 275 milliSieverts of radiation well over a year’s exposure to natural background at sea level in over just 195 days It is a lot more than that during a solar flare which is one of the concerns for astronauts to avoid micrometeorites are another concern in a soft spacesuit The higher up you are above sea level the less of the atmosphere there is between you and space so the less shielding you have to protect you from the intense cosmic space radiations emitted by thermonuclear reactors we call ‘stars’ as well as distant supernovae explosions At sea level the air above you constitutes a radiation shield of 10 tons per square metre or the equivalent of having a 10 metres thick water shield between you and outer space As you go up a mountain or up in an aircraft the amount of atmosphere between you and space decreases thus radiation levels increase with altitude because there is less shielding The normal background radiation exposure rate shoots up by a factor of 20 from 0010 to 020 milliRoentgens per hour when any airplane ascends from sea level to 36000 feet cruising altitude The now obsolete British Concorde supersonic transport used to maintain radiation-monitoring equipment so that it could drop to lower-altitude flight routes if excessive cosmic radiation due to solar storms were detected Flight aircrew get more radiation exposure than many nuclear industry workers at nuclear power plants Residents of the high altitude city of Denver get 100 milliRoentgens about 1 milliSievert more annual exposure than a resident of Washington DC but the mainstream anti-radiation cranks don’t campaign for the city to be shut to save kids radiation exposure for mountain climbing to be banned etc! 1994 revised Introduction to Kearny’s Nuclear War Survival Skills by Dr Edward Teller January 14 1994: ‘If defense is neglected these weapons of attack become effective They become available and desirable in the eyes of an imperialist dictator even if his means are limited Weapons of mass destruction could become equalizers between nations big and small highly developed and primitive if defense is neglected If defense is developed and if it is made available for general prevention of war weapons of aggression will become less desirable Thus defense makes war itself less probable One psychological defense mechanism against danger is to forget about it This attitude is as common as it is disastrous It may turn a limited danger into a fatal difficulty’ Advice of Robert Watson-Watt Chief Scientist on the World War II British Radar Project defending Britain against enemy attacks: ‘Give them the third best to go on with the second best comes too late the best never comes’ From Wikipedia a source of groupthink: ‘Groupthink is a type of thought exhibited by group members who try to minimize conflict and reach consensus without critically testing analyzing and evaluating ideas Individual creativity uniqueness and independent thinking are lost in the pursuit of group cohesiveness as are the advantages of reasonable balance in choice and thought that might normally be obtained by making decisions as a group During groupthink members of the group avoid promoting viewpoints outside the comfort zone of consensus thinking A variety of motives for this may exist such as a desire to avoid being seen as foolish or a desire to avoid embarrassing or angering other members of the group Groupthink may cause groups to make hasty irrational decisions where individual doubts are set aside for fear of upsetting the group’s balance’ |
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The Taparko Gold Mine close to the Taparko village was the first industrial mine that started production in Burkina Faso after Poura a gold mine that was closed in 1999 When the owning company Nordgold from Russia signed the contract with the government of Burkina Faso in 1995 the country had no mining code Nordgold was granted a stabilization clause stating that it will pay a stable license fee equal to 3 of the value of gold sold during the contract period of 25 years The company still benefits from this agreement from the past saving 16 million US Dollar since 2011 compared to other mining companies which pay 4-5 JB 2018 Since construction work has started in 2005 conflicts between the mining company and the surrounding population have been recurring The establishment of the mine resulted in several problems for the village: Many local farmers have lost their fields and therefore their income hopes for recruitment have not been fulfilled residents feel endangered by the blasts at the site and they suffer from health and environmental damage caused by the gold mine Currently the extension of the mine implies the resettlement of 1100 people Nordgold 2017 and it remains to be seen how the population reacts One local farmer states his hopelessness: “They have taken everything from us: our land our jobs our health our peace and our hope” Employment In the beginning the people of Taparko hoped that the gold mine would provide training and jobs especially for the youth Soon they realised that quite the opposite was the case: Workers were mostly recruited from outside the village Furthermore the mining concession comprised farming land As most of the Taparko villagers are peasants they depend on their land Losing their fields hence meant losing their source of income According to interviews some children even had to leave school to help generate an income for their families after their parents could no longer farm Revenues have not only been lost from farming but also from artisanal mining which has been prohibited on the concession area Against all hopes the gold mine of Taparko has thus failed to offer job possibilities in the view of the villagers and instead has worsened the living conditions of the people Danger and Damage With the mining site being close to the village of Taparko the population feels threatened The work of the mine includes dynamite blasts in order to crush the gold containing rock These provoke ground motion and take dust and rocks into the village People report that one day a child even got hit on the head by a projectile Furthermore villagers suffer increasingly of respiratory illnesses caused by the dust related to the gold extraction The detonations are not only a risk to the people but they also cause damage to their houses and produce a lot of noise Stock farmers complain that their animals are no longer safe with the gold mine being in the direct neighborhood Communication The local population feels that the mining company does not care about them and officials seem unapproachable Many people have the feeling of being exploited The villagers wish for an open dialogue with the company and a peaceful relationship as neighbours While some of the people call for the government’s mediation to help building such a relationship others feel that the government and the mining company are working together They thus call for protection by the government instead of supporting the interests of the company Protest Since the population of Taparko has the impression that the mining company does not care about their problems the villagers use different forms of protest like road blockades see video strikes and demonstrations to underline their demands After years of conflict and protest many residents of Taparko feel frustrated One farmer even asks: “What can the poor do against all this Nothing” Demands All in all the people of Taparko have the feeling that the gold mine is taking almost everything from them without giving anything back A female student points out how left out the villagers feel by saying: “Everyone talks about the mine of Taparko but not about the people of Taparko” The locals wish for a share of the profits in form of investments in local infrastructure roads school hospital drinking water and the construction of houses in distance to the mining site job opportunities and in general support for the development of Taparko since “if it is good for us the locals it is also good for them the mining company But only to come for the money and not to think about us is not good” local farmer |
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Honor 9X Pro EEC Certified in Russia: Major Specs and Price Unvield |
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3 Russian tents with wood stove – Cold Weather Tent with Stove |
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how to change language gta 4Gta 4 language change from Russian to Engl |
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Russia China Prepare To Dump Dollar Agree To Bilateral Trade In National Currencies |
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Actual or attempted invasion of Israel by Russia Iran and other Islamic countries see part 3 of Battle of Armageddon |
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On June 19 2015 a classical music open air concert “Night Serenades” dedicated to Ukrainian prisoners illegally detained by the Russian Federation took place in front of the Ministry of Foreign Affairs of Ukraine |
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Renewed Focus on MH17: Russian disinformation review |
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Meanwhile investment in the military’s future and its capacity to make war on a global scale remains staggeringly beyond that of any other power or combination of powers No other country comes faintly close not the Russians nor the Chinese nor the Europeans just now being encouraged to up their military game by President Obama who recently pledged a billion dollars to strengthen the US military presence in Eastern Europe |
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moa aberg by nick hudson for elle russia december 2016 |
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Click CC for Subtitles in English Spanish Russian Chinese or French |
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NATO jets escort Russian aircraft 6 times last week: report |
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A Guide To Russian New Year Table |
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Join two world class prophecy teachers Joel Richardson and Bill Salus in a historic debate Where is “THE GREAT HARLOT” city of Revelation 17-18 Is it Mecca or Rome Should prophecy watchers look to the central city of Islam in the heart of Saudi Arabia or to the capital of Roman Catholicism in Italy Will Satan use Islam as the foundation for his final great deception or will continued apparitions of the Queen of Heaven and Roman Catholic Eucharistic miracles be used to lead people astray Answers to these and many more questions are provided in this timely and enlightening 3-hour debate MYSTERY BABYLON BONUS OFFER – For a limited time buy the DVD on sale below for 1295 Normally sells for 1995 Purchase your copy for only 1295 plus shipping amp handling Click Here THE NOW PROPHECIES God’s word to Noah was to prepare NOW for a worldwide flood God’s word to Joseph was to prepare Pharaoh and Egypt NOW for seven years of famine God’s word to Jeremiah was to prepare the Jews NOW for seventy years of exile into Babylon The key word in these historical examples was NOW! What does God’s Word say for us to prepare for NOW What are the tough decisions we need to make The NOW Prophecies book identifies the biblical prophecies that were written centuries ago for THIS GENERATION! These ancient inscriptions predict powerful events that will profoundly affect everyone This book makes it easy to understand how to get ready NOW for what to expect in the near future! Purchase your copy for only 1595 plus shipping amp handling Click Here Nuclear Showdown in Iran The Ancient Prophecy of Elam Missiles cloud Mideast skies over the Persian Gulf Iran shuts down the Strait of Hormuz Arab oil is choked off to world markets Hezbollah and Hamas launch scores of missiles into Israel Terror cells initiate cycles of violence in America Global economies begin to collapse Radioactivity permeates the skies over Bushehr’s nuclear reactor Countless Iranian’s hastily seek refuge into neighboring nations The Arabian Gulf becomes a cesspool of contamination Desalinization plants can’t process the polluted waters A humanitarian crisis burgeons out of control A disaster of epic biblical proportion has finally arrived in the Middle East! About 2600 years ago the Hebrew prophets Jeremiah and Ezekiel issued parallel end times prophecies concerning modern-day Iran Today the rogue country is becoming a nuclear nation and aggressively advancing its hegemony throughout the greater Middle East Nuclear Showdown in Iran The Ancient Prophecy of Elam is a non-fiction thriller taking the reader on a journey of discovery through the eyes of the prophets and the minds of today’s key national playersCan anything good come from the evil that is about to befall us The ancient prophecy of Elam will reveal what God has ordained what the prophets saw and what you need to know and do now Buy the Nuclear Showdown book or DVD Click Here PSALM 83 The Missing Prophecy Revealed How Israel Becomes the Next Mideast Superpower An ancient prophecy written over 3000 years ago reveals that the Arab states and terrorist populations which presently share common borders with Israel will soon confederate in order to wipe Israel off of the map These enemies of Israel are depicted on the red arrows upon the book cover image and their mandate is clear: They have said Come and let us cut them off from being a nation That the name of Israel may be remembered no more Psalm 83:4 Psalm 83 predicts a climactic concluding Arab-Israeli war that has eluded the discernment of today’s top Bible scholars and yet the Middle East stage appears to be set for the fulfillment of this prophecy While many of today’s top Bible experts are predicting that Russia Iran Turkey Libya and several other countries are going to invade Israel according a prophecy in Ezekiel 38 this timely book explains how Psalm 83 occurs prior Discover how Israel defeats their ancient Arab enemies and why Americans need to stand beside Israel in this coming war! Order Psalm 83 Today Purchase your copy for only 1599 or become a ministry partner and receive a free copy Click to read the introduction with the endorsements Click to become a Prophecy Depot Ministry Partner Upcoming Events If you would like to have Bill Salus come speak at your conference of church contact phone 714-376-5487 or email |
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Mineral: Gold Operator: Bissa Gold SA Company: Nordgold Russia Start of production: 2013 Bissa 2016 Bouly Output: 2615 koz in 2018 Size: 129km2 |
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Celebrating National Day of the Russian Federation |
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Donald Trump willing for US-Russia dialogue: Kremlin |
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Three Goldsmiths’ Company Apprentices Representing UK Jewellery Skills on the Road to Russia! |
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Мы работаем под маркой La Crosse Russia |
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“Put together the consumer potential of Turkey
the oil reserves of Saudi Arabia
the national gas reserves of Russia and
the mineral reserves of Australia
Iran has it all in ONE country” |
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Cool robot kit САРМАТ Амага from Russian! |
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3D Customize FIFA World Cup Russia 2018 Bedding Set Duvet Cover Set Bedroom Set Bedlinen 4 |
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MANOWAR – Final Battle Full concert Live in Russia Krasnodar – DS Oly |
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Translations: English Spanish Hindi Urdu Myanmar Mandarin Portuguese Korean German French Russian Malayalam Indonesian Arabic Zulu Efik Igbo Tagalog Bengali Nepali Swedish Norwegian Kazakh Acehnese Cebuano Turkmen Mongol Javanese amp lots more! |
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Russia Slaps US Think Tank With ‘Undesirable’ Label After Post-Putin Geopolitics of Theresa May’s Dutiful Handshake |
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Russian Air Force Planes Land In Venezuela |
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Putin to Bolton: Russia Surprised With U |
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With Speak Russian Fast you will master the language five times faster at the expense of “dead” time – in the car at the gym while walking etc |
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Russian Motor Vehicles: The Czarist Period 1784 to 1917 |
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RWC 2019 – The Competitors – Russia |
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mbbs admission in RUSSIA |
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‘Black Krim’ 80 days / Indeterminate A Russian heirloom beefsteak tomato with distinct purplish-black shoulders at maturity The heavy fruits are juicy and loaded with flavour making them a favourite of chefs and home cooks alike This variety is somewhat prone to cracking alleviate with consistent watering but one taste will make that seem a minor flaw |
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Russian Nationals 2018 |
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Russian watch Chronograph Quartz Poljot Movt Miyota OS21 President Metal Black dial Silver Case |
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This rare rifle is one of the only 500 Finnish M39/43 sniper rifles ever made Note the “combination” of the German scope with the “German style SSR lever and pin” on the base with the “Russian style middle mount” |
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FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12thQ65 Which among the following was/were the observations of Portuguese traveler Barbosa 1 Architecture of tombs amp Mosques resembles of the mandapas found in the temples of Hampi2 Houses of the people were thatched but nonetheless well built and arranged according to occupationsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CFRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 7thQ64 With reference to the Banjaras what was Tanda A Caravan B HorseC Raw materialD Food grainAns AThese Banjaras carry their household – wives and children – along with them One tanda consists of many familiesFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ63 With reference to the International Renewable Energy Agency IRENA consider the following statements :1 It is an intergovernmental organization to promote adoption and sustainable use of renewable energy2 It was founded in 20093 India is one of the 33 Permanent members of IRENASelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 2 amp 3B 1 amp 2C 1 amp 3D 123AnsDFRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th Q62 During the Akbar court what was akhbarat A It contained all kinds of information such as attendance at the court grant of offices and titlesB It is the recording of all the proceedings in the curtC It is a room for all the private discussions with the officials D None of the above Ans AFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ61 Consider the following statements regarding the features of the World Bank:1 The Board of Governors is the Supreme body2 The voting power of the governor of a member country is related to the financial contribution of the country concerned3 It gives short-term loan to its members to correct their temporary balance of payments disequilibriumSelect the correct answer using the code given below:A 1 onlyB 12 amp 3C 1 amp 2 onlyD 2 amp 3 onlyAns CThe World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans to developing countries for capital programs It comprises two institutions: the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development IBRD and the International Development Association IDA The World Bank is a component of the World Bank Group and a member of the United Nations Development GroupThe World Bank’s official goal is the reduction of poverty According to its Articles of Agreement all its decisions must be guided by a commitment to the promotion of foreign investment and international trade and to the facilitation of capital InvestmentThe World Bank is not to be confused with the United Nations World Bank Group a member of the United Nations Economic and Social Council and a family of five international organizations that make leveraged loans to poor countries: • International Bank for Reconstruction and Development IBRD• International Development Association IDA• International Finance Corporation IFC• Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency MIGA• International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes ICSIDFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ60 With reference to the Central Board of Film Certification consider the following statements :1 It is a non- statutory body under the aegis of Union Ministry of Information and Broadcasting2 Non-official members amp Chairman are appointed by Central Government recommended by Prime Minister of IndiaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DIt is a statutory body under the aegis of Union Ministry of Information and BroadcastingLocation : MumbaiNon-official members amp Chairman are appointed by Union Government Its function is to regulate the public exhibition of films in India under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952 by granting them certificate under 4 categories They are U: Unrestricted Public Exhibition UA: Unrestricted Public Exhibition- but with a word of caution that Parental discretion required for children below 12 years A: Restricted to adults S: Restricted to any special class of personsFilm Certification Appellate Tribunal FCAT : Located in Delhi It hears the appeals filed as per provisions of Cinematograph Act Any applicant can file an appeal before the tribunal for a certificate in respect of a film who is aggrieved by an order of the Central Board of Film Certification CBFCFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ59 Which among the following are included in the African Union 1 Morocco2 France3 Portugal4 United kingdomSelect the correct answer using the code given below :A 134B 234C 123D 1234Ans BThe African Union AU is a continental union consisting of 54 countries in Africa The only African state that is not a member is Morocco due to the status of the Western Sahara although Burkina Faso and the Central African Republic have had their memberships suspended due to the recent coup d’état and ongoing civil war respectively The AU was established on 26 May 2001 in Addis Ababa and launched on 9 July 2002 in South Africa with the aim of replacing the Organisation of African UnityOAUThe objectives of the AU are:1 To achieve greater unity and solidarity between the African countries and Africans2 To defend the sovereignty territorial integrity and independence of its Member States3 To accelerate the political and social-economic integration of the continent4 To promote and defend African common positions on issues of interest to the continent and its peoples5 To encourage international cooperation taking due account of the Charter of the United Nations and the Universal Declaration of Human Rights6 To promote peace security and stability on the continent7 To promote democratic principles and institutions popular participation and good governance8 To promote and protect human and peoples’ rights in accordance with the African Charter on Human and Peoples’ Rightsand other relevant human rights instruments9 To establish the necessary conditions which enable the continent to play its rightful role in the global economy and in international negotiations10 To promote sustainable development at the economic social and cultural levels as well as the integration of African economies11 To promote co-operation in all fields of human activity to raise the living standards of African peoples12 To coordinate and harmonize the policies between the existing and future Regional Economic Communities for the gradual attainment of the objectives of the Union13 To advance the development of the continent by promoting research in all fields in particular in science and technology14 To work with relevant international partners in the eradication of preventable diseases and the promotion of good health on the continentFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ58 With reference to the International Monetary Fund consider the following statements :1 India’s voting right in IMF has been increased from 23 to 26 2 Doubling of quotas depicts share of European amp Gulf countries has been increased Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns ADoubling of quotas depicts share of European amp Gulf countries has been decreasedChina will have the 3rd largest IMF quota and voting share after the US and Japan While India Russia and Brazil will also be among the top 10 members of the IMFCurrently US Japan France Germany Italy United Kingdom Canada and Saudi Arabia are among the top ten members of the IMF While the member countries with the 5 largest quotas appoint an Executive DirectorFRAMED FROM LAXMIKANTQ57 With reference to the committee on Privileges consider the following statements :1 It is semi judicial in nature2 It does not have any member from Rajya Sabha3 It examines the cases of breach of privileges amp recommends appropriate actionWhich among the above are correct A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C Only 1 amp 2D All are correctAns AThe Lok Sabha committee has 15 members while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 membersFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ56 Which of the following is a member of the Missile Technology Control Regime A India B ChinaC USAD LuxembourgAns BThe Missile Technology Control Regime MTCR is a multilateral export control regime It is an informal and voluntary partnership among 35 countries to prevent the proliferation of missile and unmanned aerial vehicle technology capable of carrying above 500 kg payload for more than 300 kmThe Missile Technology Control Regime MTCR established in April 1987 by the G7 countries: Canada France Germany Italy Japan Great Britain and the United States of America The People’s Republic of China is not a member of the MTCR but has agreed to abide by the original 1987 Guidelines and Annex but not the subsequent revisions Israel Romania and Slovakia have also agreed to voluntarily follow MTCR export rules even though not yet membersIn 2002 the MTCR was supplemented by the International Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation ICOC also known as the Hague Code of Conduct which calls for restraint and care in the proliferation of ballistic missile systems capable of delivering weapons of mass destruction and has 119 members thus working parallel to the MTCR with less specific restrictions but with a greater membershipIndia formally applied for membership to the group in June 2015 with active support from France and the United States and officially became a member on 27 June 2016 with the consensus of the 34 member nationsFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ55 Under IUCN category Dhole is classified as :A EndangeredB ExtinctC VulnerableD None of the aboveAns AThe dhole is a canid native to Central South and Southeast Asia Other English names for the species include Asiatic wild dog Indian wild dog whistling dog red wolf red dog and mountain wolfFRAMED FROM LAXMIKANTQ54 With reference to the committee on Privileges consider the following statements :1 It is semi judicial in nature2 It does not have any member from Rajya Sabha3 It examines the cases of breach of privileges amp recommends appropriate actionWhich among the above are correct A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C Only 1 amp 2D All are correctAns AThe Lok Sabha committee has 15 members while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q53 Which among the following were the observations of Ibn Batuta 1 Two kinds of plant ie Coconut amp Palm were completely unfamiliar to his audience2 Ibn Battuta found cities in the subcontinent full of exciting opportunities3 Most cities had crowded streets and bright and colourful markets that were stacked with a wide variety of goods4 Most bazaars had a mosque and a temple and in some of them at least spaces were marked for public performances by dancers musicians and singersWhich among the above is/are correct A Only 3B 134C 2 amp 3D 1234Ans DIbn Battuta found Indian agriculture very productive because of the fertility of the soil which allowed farmers to cultivate two crops a year He also noted that the subcontinent was well integrated with inter-Asian networks of trade and commerce with Indian manufactures being in great demand in both West Asia and Southeast Asia fetching huge profits for artisans and merchants Indian textiles particularly cotton cloth fine muslins silks brocade and satin were in great demand Ibn Battuta informs us that certain varieties of fine muslin were so expensive that they could be worn only by the nobles and the very richAlmost all trade routes were well supplied with inns and guest housesThe postal system was so efficient that while it took fifty days to reach Delhi from Sind the news reports of spies would reach the Sultan through the postal system in just five daysUluq was known as Horse post Foot post has three stations per mile ie called as dawa FRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q52 With reference to the Mughal court What was Kornish A It was a form of ceremonial salutationB It was old residential city of DelhiC It is a dance performed by men amp women in a court D None of the above Ans AKornish was a form of ceremonial salutation in which the courtier placed the palm of his right hand against his forehead and bent his head It suggested that the subject placed his head – the seat of the senses and the mind – into the hand of humility presenting it to the royal assemblyChahar taslim is a mode of salutation which begins with placing the back of the righthand on the ground and raising it gently till the person stands erect when he puts thepalm of his hand upon the crown of his head It is done four chahar times Taslim literally means submissionFRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q51 With reference to the ancient period consider the following :1 Moors – Muslim Merchants 2 Devadasis – Temple dancers3 Hundi – Note recording a depositSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B 1 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans DFRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12th Q50 With reference to the ancient period which among the following is/are correctly matched 1 Hatta – Market Streets2 Manigramam and Nanadesi – Taxes3 Kaikkolars – WeaversSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B 1 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans BManigramam and Nanadesi- There were several such guilds in south India from the eighthWeavers such as the Saliyar or KaikkolarsFROM UPSC PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONQ49 Consider the following :1 Acesulfame potassium2 Polyethylene glycol3 Saccharin4 SucraloseWhich of the above are used as sugar substitutes in foodsA 1 amp 2B 234C 134D 1234Ans CFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ48 Which of the following is not an ASEAN member A CambodiaB ChinaC LaosD VietnamAns BThe Association of South East Asian Nations Asean is a 10-member international body that represents more than 500 million people living in the region Set up in 1967 in Bangkok by Thailand Indonesia Malaysia the Philippines and Singapore it has since been joined by Brunei Laos Vietnam Myanmar and CambodiaThe Association of Southeast Asian Nations ASEAN was formed in 1967 by Indonesia Malaysia the Philippines Singapore and Thailand to promote political and economic cooperation and regional stabilityFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ47 With reference to the International Renewable Energy Agency consider the following statements :1 It is the governing body which is responsible for implementing various decisions of assembly2 India is the founding member of IRENASelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ46 Union Information and Broadcasting Minister launched Vivid Bharti ServiceWith reference to the Vivid Bharti consider the following statements :1 It is available on below 100 Megahertz MHz frequency2 It is a service of All India Radio AIRSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns BIt is available on below 1028 Megahertz MHz frequencyFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ45 Who among the following are the members of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation 1 China2 Kyrgyzstan3 Kazakhstan4 Russia5 Tajikistan6 UzbekistanWhich among the above statements is/are correct A 123B 23456C 12356D All are correctAns DSince 2005 India was having an Observer status of SCO and had applied for full membership in 2014FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ44 Which among the following have the observer status in shanghai Cooperation 1 Mongolia2 Iran 3 Pakistan4 IndiaWhich among the above statements is/are correct A 134B 234C Only 4D All are correctAns DIt was established in 2001 amp it comprises China Kazakhstan Kyrgyzstan Russia Tajikistan UzbekistanFRAMED FROM NCERT CIVICSQ43 Consider the following statements regarding ‘zero hour’ in the Lok Sabha / Rajya Sabha1 This term does not find any mention in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Constitution of India2 A number of members raise their matters of urgent public importance at 12:00 noon in the House which has been termed as zero hour3 Proceedings of zero hour are not recorded in the House4 A written reply is given to the member by a concerned Minister for the matter raised during zero hourSelect the correct answer from the code given below:A 1 amp 2B 3 amp 4C 2 onlyD 1 amp 4AnsAQuestion Hour: The first hour of every sitting of Parliament is generally reserved for the asking and answering of questionsZero Hour: The time immediately following the Question Hour has come to be known as Zero Hour It starts at around 12 noon hence the name and members can with prior notice to the Speaker raise issues of importance during this time Typically discussions on important Bills the Budget and other issues of national importance take place from 2pm onwardsFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ42 Who among the following are the members of SAARC 1 Bhutan2 Bangladesh3 Myanmar4 Pakistan5 Sri LankaSelect the correct answer using the code given below :A 1245B 1 amp 5C 234D 12345Ans AThe South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation SAARC is regional intergovernmental organization and geopoliticalunion in South Asia Its member states include Afghanistan Bangladesh Bhutan India Nepal the Maldives Pakistan and Sri Lanka SAARC compromises 3 of the world’s area 21 of the world’s population and 912 of the global economy as of 2015SAARC was founded in Dhaka in 1985 Its secretariat is based in Kathmandu The organization promotes development economics and regional integration It launched the South Asian Free Trade Area in 2006 SAARC maintains permanent diplomatic relations at the UN as an observer and has developed links with multilateral entities including the EU However the organization continues to face many challenges Disputes between nuclear rivals India and Pakistan have often clouded the union’s potential and progressFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ41 Who among the following are the members of the Washington Accord 1 India2 China3 Malaysia4 South AfricaWhich among the above is/are correct A 134B Only 1 amp 2C Only 3D 1234Ans D The Washington Accord is an international accreditation agreement for professional engineering academic degrees between the bodies responsible for accreditation in its signatory countries The Washington Accord covers undergraduate engineering degrees under Outcome-based education approach Engineering technology and postgraduate programs are not covered by the accord although some engineering technology programs are covered under the Sydney Accord and the Dublin Accord Only qualifications awarded after the signatory country or region became part of the Washington Accord are recognized The accord is not directly responsible for the licensing of Professional Engineers and the registration of Chartered Engineers but it does cover the academic requirements that are part of the licensing processes in signatory countriesIndia became the permanent member of the Washington AccordIt is an esteemed international treaty on engineering studies and mobility of engineers across signatory countries including the US the UK and Australia signatories are: Australia Canada Chinese Taipei Hong Kong China India Ireland Japan Korea Malaysia New Zealand Russia Singapore South Africa Turkey the United Kingdom and the United StatesThe treaty covers undergraduate engineering degrees under Outcome-based education approach The accord doesn’t take into account engineering technology and postgraduate programsQUESTION LIFTED FROM PRATIYOGITA DARPANQ40 Which of the following is a Decentralised Autonomous Organisation A Venture Capital fundB Trade association C Market regulator D Financial regulator Ans AIt is an organization that is run through rules encoded as computer programs called smart contracts A DAO’s financial transaction record and program rules are maintained on a blockchain There are several examples of this business model The precise legal status of this type of business organization is unclearFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ39 In context with the The Saint Helena Act 1833 or The Government of India Act 1833 consider the following statements:1 It redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India2 It ended the activities of the Company as a commercial body and became a purely administrative body3 It attempted to introduce a system of open competitions for the selection of civil servantsSelect the correct statements from the given codes :A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans DAs this Act was also meant for an extension of the royal charter granted to the company it is also called the Charter Act of 1833 Even this extended the charter by 20 years It contained the following provisions:• It redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India Under this provision Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India• It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers The Governor-General was given exclusive legislative powers for the whole of British India• It ended the activities of the Company as a commercial body and became a purely administrative body In particular the Company lost its monopoly on trade with China and other parts of the Far East• It attempted to introduce a system of open competitions for the selection of civil servants However this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors who continued to hold the privilege of appointing Company officials• The island of Saint Helena was vested in His MajestyFRAMED FROM Indian History-Mansi PublicationsQ38 What constituted the crux of the Drain theory highlighted by the Dada Bhai Naoroji A Abuse of trade practices by the merchants of the ruling race B Ill-gotten money taken from the princely rulers amp remitted to EnglandC Unrequited exports from IndiaD Gluttish from Indian markets with british manufactured goods Ans CDadabhai Naoroji’s work focused on the drain of wealth from India into England through colonial rule One of the reasons that the Drain theory is attributed to Naoroji is his decision to estimate the net national profit of India and by extension the effect that colonisation has on the country Through his work with economics Naoroji sought to prove that Britain was draining money out of India Naoroji described 6 factors which resulted in the external drain -Firstly India is governed by a foreign government -Secondly India does not attract immigrants which bring labour and capital for economic growth -Thirdly India pays for Britain’s civil administrations and occupational army -Fourthly India bears the burden of empire building in and out of its borders -Fifthly opening the country to free trade was actually a way to exploit India by offering highly paid jobs to foreign personnel -Lastly the principal income-earners would buy outside of India or leave with the money as they were mostly foreign personnel In Naoroji’s book ‘Poverty’ he estimated a 200–300 million pounds loss of revenue to Britain that is not returned Naoroji described this as vampirism with money being a metaphor for blood which humanised India and attempted to show Britain’s actions as monstrous in an attempt to garner sympathy for the nationalist movement When referring to the Drain Naoroji stated that he believed some tribute was necessary as payment for the services that England brought to India such as the railways However the money from these services were being drained out of India for instance the money being earned by the railways did not belong to India which supported his assessment that India was giving too much to Britain FRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ37 Who among the following are the members of the Indian Ocean Rim Association 1 India2 Australia3 Indonesia4 MalaysiaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 134B 234C 123D 1234Ans DThe objectives of IORA are as follows : 1 To promote sustainable growth and balanced development of the region and member states2 To focus on those areas of economic cooperation which provide maximum opportunities for development shared interest and mutual benefits3 To promote liberalisation remove impediments and lower barriers towards a freer and enhanced flow of goods services investment and technology within the Indian Ocean rimFRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE Q36 With reference to the Mohiniyatam dance consider the following statements :1 It involves the swaying of broad hips and the gentle movements of erect posture from side to side2 The dance follows the classical text of Hastha Lakshanadeepika which has elaborate description of expressions by the hand palm and fingers3 It is performed to this accompaniment by the subtle gestures and footwork of the danseuse4 It involves the eyes in a very coy sensual manner to enchant the mind without enticing the sensesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 234C 123D All are correctAns DFRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12thQ35 With reference to the Imperial Officials of Mughal court consider the following :1 Diwan-i-ala – Finance minister2 Tainat-i-Rakab – Court3 sadr-us sudur – Minsiter of grants Select the correct answer using the codes given below:A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 123D Only 2Ans CFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ34 Which among the following are the duties of the additional solicitor general 1 Represents the Union Government in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under Article 143 Advisory Jurisdiction of the Constitution2 Appear whenever required in the Supreme Court or in any High Court on behalf of the Union Government3 Discharge other functions that are conferred on a Law Officer by the Constitution or any other Law for the time being in forceWhich among the above is/are correct A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ33 Biopiracy describes a practice in which indigenous knowledge of nature originating with indigenous peoples is used by others for profit without permissionWhich among the following comes under the Biopiracy 1 Rosy periwinkle2 Neem tree3 Basmati rice4 Enola beanWhich among the above is/are correct A 134B 234C Only 2 amp 3D All are correctAns DFRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12thQ32 With reference to the Burials of Harappan culture consider the following statements :1 At burials in Harappan sites the dead were generally laid in pits amp the hollowed-out spaces were lined with bricks2 Jewellery has been found in burials of both men and women3 Ornament consisting of three shell rings a jasper a kind of semi-precious stone bead and hundreds of micro beads was found near the skull of menSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DExtra important point :Faience a material made of ground sand or silica mixed with colour and a gum and then firedMaterials used to make beads is remarkable: stones like carnelian of a beautiful red colour jasper crystal quartz and steatite metals like copper bronze and gold and shell faience andterracotta or burnt clayFRAMED FROM WIKEPDIAQ31 Which among the following is the oldest international financial institution 1 Bank for International Settlement 2 International Monetary Fund3 International Bank for Reconstruction amp Development 4 International Trade OrganisationWhich among the above is/are correct A 1 amp 3B Only 1C 134D Only 3Ans B |
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International financial institution IFI is a financial institution that has been established by more than one country and hence are subjects of international law Its owners or shareholders are generally national governments although other international institutions and other organizations occasionally figure as shareholders The most prominent IFIs are creations of multiple nations although some bilateral financial institutions created by two countries exist and are technically IFIs The best known IFIs were established after World War II to assist in the reconstruction of Europe and provide mechanisms for international cooperation in managing the global financial system Today the world’s largest IFI is the European Investment Bank A multilateral development bank MDB is an institution created by a group of countries that provides financing and professional advising for the purpose of development MDBs have large memberships including both developed donor countries and developing borrower countries MDBs finance projects in the form of long-term loans at market rates very-long-term loans below market rates and through grants There are also several sub-regional multilateral development banks Their membership typically includes only borrowing nations The banks lend to their members borrowing from the international capital markets -These banks include: • Caribbean Development Bank CDB • Central American Bank for Economic Integration CABEI • East African Development Bank EADB • West African Development Bank BOAD • Black Sea Trade and Development Bank BSTDB • Economic Cooperation Organization Trade and Development Bank ETDB • Eurasian Development Bank EDB • New Development Bank NDB formerly BRICS Development Bank Regional Development Banks : The regional development banks consist of several regional institutions that have functions similar to the World Bank group’s activities but with particular focus on a specific region Shareholders usually consist of the regional countries plus the major donor countries The best-known of these regional banks cover regions that roughly correspond to United Nations regional groupings including : – the Inter-American Development Bank -the Asian Development Bank -the African Development Bank -the Central American Bank for Economic Integration -the European Bank for Reconstruction and Development The Islamic Development Bank is among the leading multilateral development banks IsDB is the only multilateral development bank after the World Bank that is global in terms of its membership 56 member countries of IsDB are spread over Asia Africa Europe and Latin America FRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th HISTORYQ30 With reference to the ancient period who were Chandalas A Brahmanical communityB UntouchablesC WeaversD Farmers cultivating the fieldsAns BFRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12th HISTORYQ29 With reference to the ancient period which among the following are correctly matched 1 jins-i kamil – perfect crops2 muqaddam – Village headman3 Majur – Labourers4 Halalkhoran – Scavangers5 Milkiyat – – PropertyWhich among the above is/are correct A 1 amp 3B 235C 1234D All are correctAns AFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ28 Consider the following statements :1 Goldilocks Zone refers to a habitable zone in the planetary system with temporal variablity in rainfall2 Exoplanet is a planet that orbits the Sun amp also termed as extrostar planetWhich among the above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DExoplanet: It is a planet that does not orbit the Sun and instead orbits a different star stellar remnant or brown dwarf It is also termed as extrasolar planet Goldilocks zone: It refers to a habitable zone in the planetary system where the temperature is neither too high nor too low Such conditions could allow for the presence on the planet’s surface of liquid water – a key ingredient for lifeFRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUALQ27 Which of the following are the mammals 1 Sea lion2 Red Panda3 Roe DeerCodes:A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans DThe red panda Ailurus fulgens also called lesser panda and red cat-bear is a small arboreal mammal native to the eastern Himalayas and southwestern China that has been classified as vulnerable by IUCN as its wild population is estimated at less than 10000 mature individuals The population continues to decline and is threatened by habitat loss and fragmentation poaching and inbreeding depression although red pandas are protected by national laws in their range countries The red panda is slightly larger than a domestic cat It has reddish-brown fur a long shaggy tail and a waddling gait due to its shorter front legs It feeds mainly on bamboo but is omnivorous and also eats eggs birds insects and small mammals It is a solitary animal mainly active from dusk to dawn and is largely sedentary during the dayFRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUALQ26 Under the classification of IUCN Red Panda are classified as :A ExtinctB ThreatenedC VulnerableD EndangeredAns CFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ25 Who among the following are the members of Shanghai Cooperation 1 China2 Russia3 Kazakhstan4 Kyrgyzstan5 Tajikistan6 India 7PakistanSelect the correct answer from the given codes :A 1345B 234567C 124567D All are correctAns DObservers: Afghanistan Iran Mongolia and BelarusFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ24 Who among the following are the founding members of the Ashgabat agreement 1 Uzbekistan2 Iran3 Turkmenistan4 Oman5 Kazakhstan Select the correct answer from the given codes :A 1345B 2345C Only 13 amp 5D All are correctAns DIt is a transit agreement established in year 2011It establishes international transport and transit corridor between Central Asia and the Persian Gulf countriesFRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12thQ23 With reference to the Sufism tradition which among the following is/are correctly matched 1 Malfuzat – Conversation of Sufi saints2 Maktubat – Collection of letters 3 Tazkiras – Biographical account of saintsWhich among the above is/are correct A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 123D Only 2Ans CFRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12thQ22 With reference to the ancient period which among the following is/are correctly matched 1 Auqaf – Charitable trusts2 Inam – Tax free land3 Sama – immediate requirements such as food clothes living quarters and ritual necessitiesWhich among the above is/are correct A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 123D Only 2Ans CFRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12thQ21 With reference to the ancient history which among the following was/were the characteristics of ancient temples 1 The early temple was a small square room called the garbhagriha with a single doorway for the worshipper to enter and offer worship to the image2 Tall structure ie shikhara was built over the central shrine3 Assembly halls huge walls and gateways and arrangements for supplying water Which among the above is/are correct A Only 3B 1 amp 3C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DFRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12thQ20 With reference to the ancient rural society which among the following is/are correctly matched 1 Vellalar – Large landowners2 Uzhavar – Ploughmen 3 Adimai – SlavesWhich among the above is/are correct A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DImportant point :Gahapati was the owner master or head of a household who exercised control over the women children slaves and workers who shared a common residence He was also the owner of the resources – land animals and other things – that belonged to the household Sometimes the term was used as a marker of status for men belonging to the urban elite including wealthy merchantsFRAMED FROM NCERT HISTORY CLASS 12thQ19 With reference to the ancient History what were Saddle querns A Grinding equipment for foodB Equipment used for IrrigationC Used for manufacturing of bricks in an ancient IndiaD Used for spinning of clothes Ans AProcessing of food required grinding equipment as well as vessels for mixing blending and cooking These were made of stone metal and terracotta This is an excerpt from one of the earliest reports on excavations at Mohenjodaro the best-known Harappan siteThey were made of hard gritty Igneous rocks or sandstoneFROM CDS PREVIOUS YEAR QUSTION amp WIKEPEDIAQ18 In context with the Dugong consider the following statements:1 It is close to the extinction2 It is found in gulf of katch off the saurashtra coast as well as Gulf of mannar3 It mostly depends upon the sea grassCodes:A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans DThe Gulf of Kutch is the only region on India’s west coast where the dugong – also known as a sea cow due to its vegetarian diet and feeding off of sea grass – is found with populations found on the coasts of Tamil Nadu and higher north on the east coastThe Gujarat Ecological Education and Research Foundation a government body estimates about 15 dugongs to be alive in the region The species is listed as a schedule 1 animal under India’s wildlife protection laws and globally considered vulnerable to extinction by the International Union for Conservation of Nature IUCN a scientific bodyFRAMED FROM THE HINDU NEWSPAPERQ17 In context with the Green Energy corridor which among the following statement is correct A It will facilitate the flow of renewable energy into the grid electricityB It will help in reducing of environmental pollutionC It will facilitate the use amp recycle of natural resourcesD None of the aboveAns AIndia said the green energy corridor will facilitate the flow of renewable energy into its grid electricity The corridor will be built across seven states over the next five to six years“The project will be implemented with the assistance of Germany which has promised to provide developmental and technical assistance of €1 billion as soft creditThe grid will also receive support from the World Bank and India’s National Electricity Fund It aims to connect the southern grid to the national grid by 2014 to create the single largest transmission grid in the worldIndia’s wind and solar capacity has more than doubled in the last five years As of February India had 19564 MW of wind Solar the second largest source of renewable energy had 1208 MW of installed capacityLast month a joint study from Greenpeace and market analysts Bridge to India said Delhi could break the 2 GW solar power barrier by 2020 due to plummeting costs extensive roof space and the rising demand for electricityFRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12thQ16 Statements:1 Lomash rishi amp Sudama caves in the barabar hills modeled on wooden architectural prototypes are example of the earliest cave architecture in India2 Barabar hills caves were dedicated by Chandragupta Maurya to Ajivika monksCodes:A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AThe Barabar Caves are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India mostly dating from the Mauryan period 322–185 BCE and some with Ashokan inscriptions located in the Bela Ganj Block of Gaya District of Bihar India 24 km north of GayaThese caves are situated in the twin hills of Barabar four caves and Nagarjuni three caves – caves of the 16 km distant Nagarjuni Hill sometimes are singled out as Nagarjuni Caves These rock-cut chambers date back to the 3rd century BC Maurya period of Ashoka r 273 BC to 232 BC and his son Dasaratha Though Buddhists themselves they allowed various Jainsects to flourish under a policy of religious tolerance These caves were used by ascetics from the Ajivika sect founded byMakkhali Gosala a contemporary of Siddhartha Gautama the founder of Buddhism and of Mahavira the last and 24thTirthankara of Jainism Also found at the site several rock-cut Buddhist and Hindu sculptures Most caves at Barabar consist of two chambers carved entirely out of granite with a highly polished internal surface and exciting echo effect The first chamber was meant for worshippers to congregate in a large rectangular hall and the second a small circular domed chamber for worship this inner chamber probably had a small stupa like structure at some point though they are now emptyFRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITEQ15 In context with the Bharatnatyam which among the following statements are correct 1 This form of dance has no words but is composed of pure dance sequences characterized by variety of moods2 Bharatnatyam leans heavily on the abhinaya followed by movement amp mime3 Jatiswaram Shabdam Varnam amp Tillana are the forms of BharatnatyamCodes:A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans DBharatnatyam originates in Tamil Nadu which is also referred to as artistic yoga and Natya yoga The name Bharatnatyam is derived from the word Bharata and thus associated with the Natyashastra Though the style of Bharatnatyam is over two thousand years old the freshness and richness of its essence has been retained even today The technique of human movement which Bharatnatyam follows can be traced back to the fifth Century AD from sculptural evidence This classical dance has a mesmerizing effect as it uplifts the dancer and the beholder to a higher level of spiritual consciousness It is a dancing style that comprises of Bhava Raga Tala and Natya which reflect the real meaning of the BharatnatyamBharatanatyam is arguably the oldest and most traditional classical dance style which seemas a synthesis of philosophy sculpture music and literature This dance got its name from Sage Bharata who wrote the Natya ShastraBharatanatyam is an energetic dance from wherein the postures and balanced position ie the weight of the body is placed squarely down the centre of the body There is emphasis on the striking of the floor with the feet There are jumps in the air as also pirouettes called bhramaris There are movements done with the knees contacting the floor These are called mandi adavusBharatanatyam can be performed solo or in a group The pure dance is called nritta and the expressive is nritya The solo dancer uses various methods of story-telling to interpret the verses and stories she performs The person who conducts the recital is called the natatuvanar who is generally the guru of the dancer He or the plays the cymbals called nattuvangam The other musicians are the vocalist the mridangist or percussion player of flutist a violinist and a veena playerOne of the greatest performers of Bharatanatyam has been Balasaraswati who was influential in popularising the dance as much as Rukmini Devi Arundale Balasaraswati was famous for her soulful renderings of abhinaya or mimetic piece in which she not only danced but sang as well The Steps amp PerformanceBharatanatyam is always performed with the knees of the dancers bent The dance form emphasizes on the hand movements to convey different kinds of emotions to the spectator While performing Bharatanatyam the artist visualizes his/her body as made up of triangles The steps of the dance are based upon a balanced distribution of body weight and firm positions of the lower limbs allowing the hands to cut into a line to flow around the body or to take positions that enhance the basic form In order to perform Bharatnatyam the artist should have the knowledge of the numerous subtle features of the dance styleFour Techniques:Karanas Described in Natya Shastra Karanas are defined as the 108 key transitional movements of Bharatanatyam that also feature in other classical da nce forms of India Karana is a Sanskrit word meaning ‘doing’ Classical dancer Padma Subramanyam is well known for her interpretation of Karanas which predominantly includes the leg hip body and arm movements complemented by hasta mudras as described in the Natya Shastra HastasThe use of expressive hand gestures is a highlighting feature of Bharatanatyam As the name suggests hastas are the wide variety of hand symbols used by the performer Some of the most well known hand gestures of the dance form include Anjali which is used as a symbol of salutation when a person greets his/her fellow dancer Hastas are broadly divided into two types – Asamyukta and SamyuktaAdavusAdavus is defined as a series of steps in Bharatanatyam The execution of the steps is different from style to style The 108 principals of adavus are recognized by most schools of Bharatanatyam As many as 60 adavus are used by many professional dancers Jathis is the combination of adavus and forms the Nritta passages in a Bharatanatyam performanceBhedas Eye amp Neck MovementsBharatanatyam is considered incomplete without bhedas and the expressive eye movements of the performer Neck and eye movements are used extensively in the dance form The shiro bheda head movements comprises of Sama Udhvahita Adhomukha AlolitaDhutam Kampitam Paravruttam Utkshiptam and ParivahitamTheme of Bharatnatyam Bharatnatyam is a solo feminine type of a dance which is tender and erotic The basic theme is love where the female dancers usually perform as a devotion to the Supreme Being or love of a mother for child It epitomizes the adoration of lovers separated and reunited This dance is considered to be a fire dance where there is a mysterious display of the abstract element of fire in the human body Technique of Bharatnatyam Among the various styles of Bharatnatyam the Pandanallur and the Vazhuvoor are more significant Pandanallur style is characterized by its deep sitting positions its slow Lasya padams and difficult standing positions Vazhuvoor is characterized by a static posture to break the monotony with rhythmical varietyThe technique of Bharatnatyam consists of Natya Nritta and Nritya Natya is the dramatic art which is the language of gestures poses and mimes Nritta includes the rhythmic and repetitive elements The Nritya is a combination of Nritta and Natya Abhinaya also is another technique It is subtle with more spontaneous expressionsThe theme of Bharatnatyam comes alive through the zealous performances of the dancers It is the combination of technique styles and Abhinaya It starts with an invocation to Lord Gnana Sabesar of Vazhuvoor The themes are personalized depending on the dancer The dancers need to posses ten essential attributes which include Agility Steadiness graceful lines balance in pirouettes glance hard work intelligence devotion good speech and singing abilityDressing styleThe commonly used style in bharatanatyam are the skirt saree style or the pyjama style Dancers were costumes made of silk sarees with gold zari embroidery designs The pleats in this costumes opens beautifully When the dancer forms a particular posture especially ariamandihalf sitting and muzhu mandifull sittingRole of Music in Bharatnatyam Music plays an important role in Bharatnatyam The musical accompaniment of the Carnatic School predominates over the raga in the Nritta passages The chief musical instruments used in Bharatnatyam are the Mridangam and a pair of Cymbals The cymbals provide the timing and the Mridangam provides fractional measures of the broad beats The dancer follows both A tambura is also used to provide the scale for the refrain The musical instruments used are Mridangam Manjira Vina Violin Kanjira Surpeti Venu and Tanpura The costume consists of a richly embroidered dhoti of silk for both male and female dancers There is a pleated or frilled cloth hanging from the waist to the knees which is laced over the DhotiFRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITEQ14 Which among the following statements related to Kathakali are correct 1 Square and rectangular basic positions are commonly seen in Kathakali2 Weight of the body is on the outer edges of the feet which are slightly bent and curved3 It is characterized by facial expressions movement of eye balls amp lower eye lidsCodes:A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans DIntroductionKathakali is the most well known dance drama from the south Indian state of Kerala The word Kathakali literally means Story-Play It is known for its large elaborate makeup and costumes The elaborate costumes of Kathakali have become the most recognised icon for KeralaThe themes of the Kathakali are religious in nature They typically deal with the Mahabarat the Ramayana and the ancient scriptures known as thePuranas This is performed in a text which is generally Sanskritised MalayalamA Kathakali performance is a major social event They generally start at dusk and go through out the night Kathakali is usually performed only by men Female characters are portrayed by men dressed in women’s costume However in recent years women have started to become Kathakali dancersKathakali has a long tradition It dates back to the 17th century It was given its present form by Mahakavi Vallathol Narayan Menon who was the founder of the Kerala Kala MandalamThe actors rely very heavily on hand gesture to convey the story These hand gestures known as mudra are common through out much of classical Indian danceCostumeThe costume is the most distinctive characteristic of Kathakali The makeup is very elaborate and the costumes are very large and heavyThere are several kinds of costume There are: Sathwika the hero Kathi the villain Minukku females and Thatti These basic divisions are further subdivided in a way which is very well known to Malayali Keralite audiences Each character is instantly recognisable by their characteristic makeup and costumeThe makeup is very elaborate It is so elaborate that it is more like a mask than makeup in the usual sense The materials that comprise the makeup is all locally available The white is made from rice flour the red is made from Vermilion a red earth such as cinnabar The black is made from soot The colours are not merely decoration but are also a means of portraying characters For instance red on the feet is used to symbolise evil character and evil intentMusicThe music of Kathakali has some similarity to the larger body of South Indian classical music Carnatic sangeet however the instrumentation is decidedly different Its local colour is strongly achieved by the use of instruments such as chenda idakka and shuddha madalamFRAMED FROM THE HINDU NEWSPAPERQ13 ‘Come and make in India’ is an invitation forA Overseas Indian to return back to India and thus stop brain drainB Foreign companies to invest in India and sell anywhere in the worldC Foreign nationals to seek employment in indiaD Both a and cAns BFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ12 Central Government has proposed to establish a Telecom Finance Corporation TFC in the 12th Five Year Plan period 2012-17 Telecom Finance Corporation is categorized as :1 Non-banking Financial Company2 Non-Deposit Infrastructure Finance Company3 Public sector UnitWhich of the above statements is/are correct A Only 1B 1 amp 3C 2 amp 3D 123AnsDFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ11 Recently which among the following products have accorded Geographical Indication Status 1 Vazhakkulam pineapple2 Central Travancore jiggery3 Pokkali rice4 Jeerakasala5 GandhakasalaWhich among the above statements is/are correct A 1235B Only 4C 2 34D 12345Ans DChengalikodan banana variety from Thrissur district of Kerala has been accorded Geographical Indication GI status by the Chennai based Central GI registryDarjeeling tea was the first agricultural product in India to be accorded with GI tagFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ10 Which among the following are included in the alternative investments 1 Infrastructure equity funds2 Real estate funds3 Social venture funds4 Private Investment in Public Equity funds5 Private equity fundCodes:A 1345B 2345C 1234D 12345Ans DFRAMED FROM NCERT CLASS 12thQ9 Which among the following are correct1 The Sufis were critical of the dogmatic definitions amp scholastic methods of interpreting the Quran amp Sunna tradition of prophet adopted by the theologians2The Sufis sought an interpretation of the Quran on the basis of their personal experienceCodes:A Only 1B Only 2 C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CFRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUALQ8 Statements:1 Height of the tidal wave is regulated by the position of the earth moon amp sun2 Spinning of earth amp revolution of the moon determines the timing of the tideCodes:A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CFRAMED FROM PEARSON CSAT MANUALQ7 Statements :1 Advocate general of state can be removed in same manner as a Judge of High Court2 Attorney general of India can be removed in same manner as of Judge of Supreme CourtCodes:A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DAdvocate general amp Attorney general holds office during the pleasure of PresidentFRAMED FROM HISTORY MANSI PUBLICATIONS OF BAQ6 Consider the following statements :1 MandapamsChawadis amp Gopurams are the part of the Chola architecture2 Dravidian architecture consists of temples with pyramid shaped towers and are constructed of sandstone soapstone or graniteCodes:A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CDravidian architecture was an architectural idiom that emerged in the Southern part of the Indian subcontinent or South IndiaIt consists primarily of temples with pyramid shaped towers and are constructed of sandstone soapstone or granite Mentioned as one of three styles of temple building in the ancient book Vastu shastra the majority of the existing structures are located in the Southern Indian states of Tamilnadu Karnataka Kerala and Andhra pradesh Various kingdoms and empires such as the Cholas the Chera the Pandyas the Pallavas the Gangas the Rashtrakutas the Chalukyas the Hoysalas and Vijayanagara Empire among others have made substantial contribution to the evolution of Dravidian architecture This styled architecture can also be found in parts of North India Northeastern and central Sri Lanka Maldives and various parts of Southeast Asia Angkor Wat in Cambodia and Prambanan in Indonesia were built based on Dravida architectureChola style temples consist almost invariably of the three following parts arranged in differing manners but differing in themselves only according to the age in which they were executed: The porches or Mandapams which always cover and precede the door leading to the cellGate-pyramids Gopurams which are the principal features in the quadrangular enclosures that surround the more notable templesGopurams are very common in dravidian templesPillard halls Chaultris or Chawadis are used for many purposes and are the invariable accompaniments of these templesBesides these a temple always contains tanks or wells for water – to be used for sacred purposes or the convenience of the priests – dwellings for all the grades of the priesthood are attached to it and other buildings for state or convenienceFRAMED FROM CDS PREVIOUS QUESTION amp WIKEPEDIAQ5 Statements:1 Sculptures of the Gandhara school stylistically are typically linked to the Greeco-Roman amp Parthian art of Iran2 Earliest stone Buddha images in the Swat valley pre-dated the Kushana period which suggests that certain iconographic conventions were already well established in the pre-kushana periodCodes:A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CGandhara is noted for the distinctive Gandhāra style of Buddhist art a consequence of merger of Greek Syrian Persian and Indian art traditions The development of this form of art started in Parthian Period50BC – 75AD Gandhāran style flourished and achieved its peak during the Kushan period from 1st Century to 5th Century It declined and suffered destruction after invasion of the White Huns in the 5th century Style of Buddhist visual art that developed in what is now northwestern Pakistan and eastern Afghanistan between the 1st century BC and the 7th century AD The style of Greco-Roman origin seems to have flourished largely during the Kushan dynasty and was contemporaneous with an important but dissimilar school of Kushan art at Mathura Uttar Pradesh IndiaThe Gandhara region had long been a crossroads of cultural influences During the reign of the Indian emperor Ashoka around 3rd century BC the region became the scene of intensive Buddhist missionary activity and in the 1st century AD rulers of the Kushan empire which included Gandhara maintained contacts with Rome In its interpretation of Buddhist legends the Gandhara school incorporated many motifs and techniques from classical Roman art including vine scrolls cherubs bearing garlands tritons and centaurs The basic iconography however remained IndianThe materials used for Gandhara sculpture were green phyllite and gray-blue mica schist which in general belong to an earlier phase and stucco which was used increasingly after the 3rd century AD The sculptures were originally painted and gilded Gandhara’s role in the evolution of the Buddha image has been a point of considerable disagreement among scholars It now seems clear that the schools of Gandhara and Mathura each independently evolved its own characteristic depiction of the Buddha about the 1st century AD The Gandhara school drew upon the anthropomorphic traditions of Roman religion and represented the Buddha with a youthful Apollo-like face dressed in garments resembling those seen on Roman imperial statues The Gandhara depiction of the seated Buddha was less successful The schools of Gandhara and Mathura influenced each other and the general trend was away from a naturalistic conception and toward a more idealized abstract image The Gandharan craftsmen made a lasting contribution to Buddhist art in their composition of the events of the Buddha’s life into set scenes The Hellenistic influence was nowhere more dramatic than in Gandhara a term now used to describe the school of semi-classical sculptures of Pakistan and Afghanistan in the early centuries of our era Gandhara is the name of an ancient province and kingdom which in classical times was limited to a small region in ancient India The province Gandhara included roughly northwestern India between the Khyber Pass and the Indus River and the region of the Kabul Valley in Afghanistan However art and architecture from the Gandharean School had been found as far north as the Oxus River found in the Punjab In the sixth to fourth centuries BCE Gandhara was dominated under the Achaemenid Dynasty of Iran The successors of Alexander the Great maintained themselves in Bactria and Gandhara from 322 BCE to about 50 BCE however as early as the second century BCE these Greek Dynasties were already overrun by peoples of both nomadic and Parthian-Iranian origin Rejoined to India under the Maurya Dynasty the Gandhara province became the object of intense missionary activity by the Buddhist emperor Asoka reigned c 273-232 BCE He made Buddhism the state religion enforced the Buddhist doctrine of nonviolence ahimsa and prohibited animal sacrifices In the first century AD the Kushans a tribe of Scythian stock from north China made themselves masters of Gandhara Their rule however was interrupted by the invasion of the Persian King Shapur I in AD 242 and the Buddhist civilization of Gandhara was finally completely destroyed by the White Huns the Hephthalites in the sixth centuryThe disastrous invasion of the White Huns put an end to all further productive activity in the once flourishing Gandhara province Little is known about this time period except from Chinese pilgrims who as early as the fifth century AD undertook the long and arduous journey to the Holy Land of Buddhism Fa Hsien who traveled through the Peshawar Valley shortly after AD 400 described that the Gandhara province flourished and that Emperor Kanishka’s successors were well cared for When his successor Sung Yen visited the region in 520 he reported that the country had been overrun by the Huns A few years later he reported that the Huns had virtually expiated Buddhism had destroyed monasteries and had slashed most of the population in Gandhara A century later when the famous Chinese pilgrim Hsuan-Tsang traveled through north-west India he found Gandhara in a ruined depopulated state He describes in his Records of the Western Countries that ruined monasteries greeted him everywhere in the Peshawar Valley and reports of the terrible desolation of the once flourishing Buddhist centers However the final chapters of the Gandharan school has its setting in Kashmir and in remote centers such as Fondukistan and Afghanistan where artistic activity continued as late as the seventh century Excavations have produced many statues other artifacts and some monasteries Unfortunately there are no architectural monuments left intact in Gandhara only some structural remains and sculptured fragments However there is ample proof of active trade and cultural exchanges between the Mediterranean and the Kushan territories into China Gandhara art is often referred to as the Graeco-or-Roman-Buddhist school The founder of the School has been credited to the Kushan Emperor Kanishka c AD 129-160 because of his patronage to Buddhism and his great artistic development The character of Gandharan art is determined by the commercial relations between the Kushan and the Roman empires The many archaeological discoveries of Alexandrian and Syrian workmanship at Taxila in the Punjab and Begram in the Kabul valley testify to the cultural and diplomatic connections with the Graeco-Roman West Many artifacts in particular sculptures have survived and are now dispersed in major museums throughout the world Evidence of Hellenistic art in the form of architecture had been noted on a number of temples from the city of Sirkap at Taxila and on the tumbled columns of Ay Khanum’s administrative center Although the presence of this material provides a Hellenistic back ground for Gandhara art it was the introduction of foreign workers from the eastern centers of the Roman Empire that led to the creation of the first Buddhist sculptures It is not surprising that the Kushans a nomadic people without a tradition of monumental art requested the service of skilled artisans to meet the architectural and sculptural requirements for the many Buddhist establishments It can be assumed that the practice of importing foreign artisans continued from the days of Kanishka’s reign until the end of Buddhism in northwest India and the Punjab in the sixth to early seventh centuries The majority of Gandharan art was however created by native craftsmen following the successive waves of foreign influences The subject matter of Gandharan art was unquestionably Buddhist while most motifs were of western Asiatic or Hellenistic origin Mesopotamian motifs can be found on Persepolitan capitals or forms such as the Atlantis garland-bearing Eros and the semi-human creatures as the centaur and triton are part of the repertory of Hellenistic art and introduced by Roman Eurasian artists in the service of the Kushan court The fantastic monsters however the sphinxes and griffins had already been assimilated by the ancient Indian schools Sculptures played a very decisive role in the Buddhist monasteries where they had been found in large quantities Tall single statues were placed in chapels to be venerated by the monks and the faithful Other large figures in high relief were placed with their back to the wall and bass relief filled all manners of places and positions The Gandhara schools is probably credited with the first representation of the Buddha in human form the portrayal of Sakyamuni in his human shape rather than shown as a symbol Perhaps the school intended to create a human Bodhisattva a representation of Prince Siddhartha the Buddha Sakyamuni while still as a Bodhisattva All early Bodhisattvas are shown in wearing turbans jewelry and muslin skirts a costume that was an adaptation of the actual dress of Kushan and Indian nobles The jewelry of these royal statues were a duplication of Hellenistic and Samatian gold created by Western artisans A definite borrowing from Roman art was the method of representing the story of the Buddhas legend in a series of separate episodes and panels This was accomplished in much the same way than the pictorial iconography of the Christian legends based on the Roman methods On portraying the careers of the Caesar’s several distinct climactic events where shown on separate panels Another example are the earliest Gandhara Buddha’s where Sakyamuni is portrayed with the head of a Greek Apollo and arrayed in a Roman toga It is the same early representation of Christ which shows Him with the head of the Greek Sun-God but dressed in the garb of the teachers of the ancient Greek world The most frequently used material by Gandharan artists was a soft indigenous schist that varied in color from light to dark gray and often contained sparkling mica particles Many of these statues were covered with gold leaf to give them a luster in dark interiors The most popular media however became an easy-to-work material terracotta and stucco Because of the fragility of the material most statues were supported by attaching them to walls giving them the appearance of a three-dimensional relief Stucco sculptures were given a final coat of gesso which was then painted The most frequent subjects were representations of Buddha Bodhisattwas and attending monks or donors The Buddha images display a variety of ethnic types and expressions The human head usually has appears with a perfect oval face regular features with almond-shaped and slightly protruding eyes with gentle arching eyebrows a straight nose and beautifully cut lips with a subtle smile The Buddha’s influence is evident in the half-closed eyes suggesting meditation The face if often unbearded but sometimes a mustache strikes a foreign note most likely Kushan The usnisa or cranial bump a redestination the Buddha was born with is usually seen in the form of the chignon a knot or a roll of hear wrapped in silk on the dome of Buddha’s head The elongated ears indicate the heavy rich jewelry the Buddha woreThe Kushans were able to establish a strong empire for a period of about three hundred years and produced works of art reflecting both indigenous traditions and external influences The detection of Greek and Roman elements in the Gandharan School testifies to the active exchange of ideals among all the civilizations of the Classical and Central Asian worldsThe Gandhara School reached its peak toward the end of the second century with the production of the most significant large Buddha statues Their style continued to flourish into the third century until after the Sasanian invasion and continued until the seventh century in Afghanistan FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTURE WEBSITE Q4 Which among the following is involved in Tribhangi dance 1 Independent movement of head2 Stamping of the foot3 Independent movement of chest and pelvisCodes:A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans DFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIA Q3 With reference to Chilgoza consider the following statements:1 They contain high antioxidants that protect the cells from damage2 It is the major source of carbohydrates amp fatsOptions:A only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AIt is the major source of Carbohydrates amp ProteinsFRAMED FROM WIKEPEDIAQ2 Consider the following statements :1 Mangroves are losing capacity to absorb carbon dioxide co2 due to the increased salinity of water 2 Absorption of co2 plays a role in reduction of warming of the earth Which of the above statements is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correct D Both are incorrect AnsCThe locked carbon in the plants is known as “Blue Carbons”FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q1 Twelve nations signed the historic Trans-Pacific Partnership TPP Agreement in Auckland recently TPP is a free trade area and accounts for around 40 of global trade Which one of the following is NOT a party to itA SingaporeB ChinaC JapanD MexicoAns BSignatories 12 • Australia • Brunei• Canada• Chile• Japan• Malaysia• Mexico• New Zealand• Peru• Singapore• United States• VietnamImportant Notes :Mahajanpadas :It was one of the sixteen kingdoms or oligarchic republics that existed in ancient India from the sixth to fourth centuries BCE The 6th-5th century BCE is often regarded as a major turning point in early Indian history it saw the emergence of India’s first large cities after the demise of the Indus Valley Civilization as well as the rise of sramana movements including Buddhism and Jainism which challenged the religious orthodoxy of the Vedic Period Archaeologically this period corresponds in part to the Northern Black Polished Ware cultureThe Buddhist Anguttara Nikaya at several places gives a list of sixteen great nations:Another Buddhist text the Digha Nikaya mentions only the first twelve Mahajanapadas and omits the following:1 Panchala2 Surasena3 Vriji4 Vatsa or VamsaChulla-Niddesa another ancient text of the Buddhist canonadds Kalinga to the list and substitutes Yona for Gandhara thus listing the Kamboja and the Yona as the only Mahajanapadas from UttarapathaImportant Notes:Gautama Buddha c 563 BCE/480 BCE – c 483 BCE/400 BCE also known as Siddhārtha Gautama Shakyamuni Buddha or simply the Buddha after the title of Buddha was an ascetic śramaṇa and sage on whose teachings Buddhism was foundedHe is believed to have lived and taught mostly in the eastern part of ancient India sometime between the sixth and fourth centuries BCEBorn c 563 BCE or c 480 BCEDied c 483 BCE or c 400 BCE aged 80Apart from the Vedic Brahmins the Buddha’s lifetime coincided with the flourishing of influential Śramaṇa schools of thought like Ājīvika Cārvāka Jainism and AjñanaBrahmajala Suttarecords sixty-two such schools of thought There is also philological evidence to suggest that the two masters Alara Kalama and Uddaka Ramaputta were indeed historical figures and they most probably taught Buddha two different forms of meditative techniques Thus Buddha was just one of the many śramaṇa philosophers of that timeAccording to the Buddhist tradition Gautama was born in Lumbini now in modern-day Nepal and raised in the Shakya capital of Kapilvastu which may have been either in what is present day Tilaurakot Nepal or Piprahwa Indianote 1 He obtained his enlightenment in Bodh Gaya gave his first sermon in Sarnath and died in KushinagarThe oldest surviving Buddhist manuscripts are the Gandhāran Buddhist texts reported to have been found in or around Haḍḍa near Jalalabad in eastern Afghanistan and now preserved in the British Library They are written in the Gāndhārī language using the Kharosthi script on twenty-seven birch bark manuscripts and date from the first century BCE to the third century CEThe sources for the life of Siddhārtha Gautama are a variety of different and sometimes conflicting traditional biographies These include the Buddhacarita Lalitavistara Sūtra Mahāvastu and the NidānakathāThe Lalitavistara Sūtra is the next oldest biography a Mahāyāna/Sarvāstivāda biography dating to the 3rd century CEThe Nidānakathā is from the Theravada tradition in Sri Lanka and was composed in the 5th century by BuddhaghoṣaThe earliest biographical material from the Pali Nikayas focuses on the Buddha’s life as a śramaṇa his search for enlightenment under various teachers such as Alara Kalama and his forty-five-year career as a teacherAccording to the early Buddhist texts after realizing that meditative dhyana was the right path to awakening but that extreme asceticismdidn’t work Gautama discovered what Buddhists know as being the Middle Way103—a path of moderation away from the extremes of self-indulgence and self-mortification or the Noble Eightfold Path as described in the Dhammacakkappavattana Sutta which is regarded as the first discourse of the Buddha Of the Buddha’s disciples Sariputta Maudgalyayana Mahakasyapa Ananda and Anuruddha are believed to have been the five closest to him His ten foremost disciples were reputedly completed by the quintet of Upali Subhoti Rahula Mahakaccana and to the Mahaparinibbana Sutta of the Pali canon at the age of 80 the Buddha announced that he would soon reach Parinirvana or the final deathless state and abandon his earthly body The precise contents of the Buddha’s final meal are not clear due to variant scriptural traditions and ambiguity over thetranslation of certain significant terms the Theravada tradition generally believes that the Buddha was offered some kind of pork while the Mahayana tradition believes that the Buddha consumed some sort of truffle or other mushroomPhysical Chaaracteristics:An extensive and colorful physical description of the Buddha has been laid down in scriptures A kshatriya by birth he had military training in his upbringing and by Shakyan tradition was required to pass tests to demonstrate his worthinessas a warrior in order to marryAn extensive and colorful physical description of the Buddha has been laid down in scriptures A kshatriya by birth he had military training in his upbringing and by Shakyan tradition was required to pass tests to demonstrate his worthiness as a warrior in order to marryImportant Notes:Stridhana:Prior to the passing of the Hindu Succession Act in 1956 property owned by a woman could be classified into two categories viz 1 property of which she was an absolute owner stridhana and 2 property of which she was only a limited owner woman’s estateProperty which was owned by a woman as stridhana passed on her death to her heirs She could also dispose of such property at her pleasure if not in all cases during marriage at least in all cases during widowhoodBroadly speaking whether a particular kind of property could be called stridhana would depend on the following three factors viz :a The source from which the property was acquiredb The status of the woman at the time of acquisition ie whether she was unmarried married or a widow andc The school of Hindu law to which she belongedi Adhyagni — ie gifts made before the nuptial fireii Adhyavahanika — ie gifts made at the bridal processioniii Pritidatta — ie gifts made by the father-in-law and mother- in-law out of affection i Adhivedanika ie gifts made on supersessionii Anwadheyaka ie gifts by the husband’s relatives after marriageiii Sulka ie gratuity or marriage feeiv Gifts from sons and relativesImportant Notes :Basavanna was a 12th-century Hindu philosopher statesman Kannada poet in the Shiva-focussed Bhakti movement and a social reformer during the reign of the Kalachuri-dynasty king Bijjala I in Karnataka IndiaBasava literary works include the Vachana Sahitya in Kannada Language He is also known as Bhaktibhandari literally the treasurer of devotion10 Basavanna elder brother Basava or Basaveswara Lord BasavaImportant Notes :Kaṇḍāriyā Mahādeva Mandir meaning the Great God of the Cave is the largest and most ornate Hindu temple in the medieval temple group found at Khajuraho in Madhya Pradesh IndiaIt is considered one of the best examples of temples preserved from the medieval period in IndiaKhajuraho was once the capital of the Chandela dynasty The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple one of the best examples of templespreserved from the medieval period in India is the largest of the western group of temples in the Khajuraho complex whichwas built by the Chandela rulers Shiva is the chief deity in the temple deified in the sanctum sanctoriumThe Kandariya Mahadeva temple was built during the reign of Vidyadhara r c 1003-1035 CEAll the extant temples including the Kandariya Mahadeva Temple were inscribed in 1986 under the UNESCO List of World Heritage Sitesunder Criterion III for its artistic creation and under Criterion V for the culture of the Chandelas that was popular till the country was invaded by Muslims in 1202Important Notes :- The name originates from the fact that the agraharams have lines of houses on either side of the road and the temple to the village god at the centre thus resembling a garland around the temple According to the traditional Hindu practice ofarchitecture and town-planning an agraharam is held to be two rows of houses running north-south on either side of a road at one end of which would be a temple to Shiva and at the other end a temple to VishnuAn example is Vadiveeswaram in Tamil NaduWith Brahmins taking up professions in urban areas and some migrating abroad agraharams are vanishing fast Many of the traditional houses are giving way to concrete structures and commercial buildingsThe earliest existing description of an agraharam has been found in a 3rd-century AD Sangam Age work called PerumpāṇāṟṟuppaṭaiThe houses had in front of them a shed with short legs to which were tied fat calves the houses were washed with cowdung and had idols inside themDomestic fowl and dogs did not approach them It was the village of the guardians of the Veda who teach its sounds to the parrots with the bent mouth If you bard reach the place fair faced bangled ladies who are as chaste as Arundhathi the little star which shines in the north of the bright broad sky will after sunset feed you on the well-cooked rice named after the bird explained by the commentator as the rice called irasanam along with slices of citron boiled in butter taken from the buttermilk derived from red cows and scented with the leaves of the karuvembu and mixed with pepper-powder and the sweet-smelling tender fruit plucked from the tall mango tree and pickledImportant Notes :Mayamata and Manasara Shilpa texts estimated to be in circulation by 5th to 7th century AD is a guidebook on Dravidian style of Vastu Shastradesign construction sculpture and joinery paddhati is another text from the 9th centurydescribing the art of building in India in south and central IndiaIn north India Brihat-samhita by Varāhamihira is the widely cited ancient Sanskrit manual from 6th centurydescribing the design and construction of Nagara style of Hindu templesImportant Notes :Traditional Dravidian architecture and symbolism are also based on Agamas The Agamas are non-vedic in origin and have been dated either as post-vedic texts or as pre-vedic compositionsThe Agamas are a collection of Tamil and Sanskrit scriptures chiefly constituting the methods of temple construction and creation of murti worship means of deities philosophical doctrines meditative practices attainment of sixfold desires and four kinds of yogaImportant Notes :In Dandekar theory Vaishnavism emerged at the end of the Vedic period closely before the second urbanisation of northernIndia in the 7th to 4th century BCE Early writings in Dravidian culture such as Manimekalai and the Cilappatikaram present Krishna his brother and favouritefemale companions in the similar termsVaishnavism flourished in predominantly Shaivite South India during the seventh to tenth centuries CE with the twelve Alvars saints who spread the sect to the common people with their devotional hymns The Bhakti movement of late medieval Hinduism started in the 7th-century but rapidly expanded after the 12th-centuryThis period saw the growth of Vashnavism Sampradayas denominations or communities under the influence of scholars such as Ramanujacharya Madhvacharya Nimbarkacharyaand VallabhacharyaRamanuja in the 11th century and Madhva in the 13th building their theology on the devotional tradition of the Alvars Shri VaishnavasIn North and Eastern India Krishnaism gave rise to various late Medieval movements: Nimbarka and Ramananda – 14th century Kabir and Sankaradeva – 15th and Vallabha and Caitanya – 16th centuryAll of the Vaishnava Upanishads either directly reference and quote from the ancient Principal Upanishads or incorporate some ideas found in them most cited texts include the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad Chandogya Upanishad Katha Upanishad Isha Upanishad Mundaka Upanishad Taittiriya Upanishad and othersThe Pancaratra texts present the Vyuhas theory of avatars to explain how the absolute reality Brahman manifests into material form of ever changing reality Vishnu avatarVasudeva state the Pancaratra texts goes through a series of emanations where new avatars of him appear This theory ofavatar formation syncretically integrates the theories of evolution of matter and life developed by the Samkhya school of Hindu philosophyIn the Varkari movement the following scriptures are considered sacred in addition to general body of the common writing:citation needed• Dyaneshawri• Tukaram-Gatha• Sopandevi• Namdev-Gatha• Eknathi-BhagwatThe Bhakti movement originated among Vaishnavas of South India during the 7th-century CE spread northwards from Tamil Nadu through Karnataka and Maharashtra towards the end of 13th-century and gained wide acceptance by the fifteenth-century throughout India during an era of political uncertainty and Hindu-Islam conflictsImportant sites of pilgrimage for Vaishnavs include Guruvayur Temple Sri Rangam Vrindavan Mathura Ayodhya Tirupati Pandharpur Vitthal Puri Jaggannath Nira Narsingpur Narasimha Mayapur Nathdwara and DwarkaThe Vaishnavism traditions may be grouped within four sampradayas each exemplified by a specific Vedic personality They have been associated with a specific founder providing the following scheme: Brahma Sampradaya Madhvacharya Sri Sampradaya Ramanuja Rudra Sampradaya Vishnuswami VallabhacharyaKumaras sampradaya NimbarkaThe Alvars those immersed in god were ten or twelve Tamil poet-saints of South India who espoused bhakti devotion to the Hindugod Vishnu or his avatar Krishna in their songs of longing ecstasy and serviceThe Alvars appeared between the 5th century to the 10th century CE though the Vaishnava tradition regards the Alvars to have lived between 4200 BCE – 2700 BCEImoprtant Notes :The Varkari-tradition is a non-Brahamanical tradition which worships Vithoba also known as Vitthal who is regarded as a form of Vishnu or Krishna Vithoba is often depicted as a dark young boy standing arms akimbo on a brick sometimes accompanied by his main consort Rakhumai The Varkari-tradition is geographically associated with the Indian states of Maharashtra and northern KarnatakaThe Varkari movement includes a duty-based approach towards life emphasising moral behavior and strict avoidance of alcohol and tobacco The adoption of a strict lacto-vegetariandiet and fasting on Ekadashi day twice a month self-restraint brahmacharya during student life equality and humanity for all rejecting discrimination based on the caste system or wealth the reading of Hindu texts the recitation of the Haripath every day and the regular practice of bhajan and kirtan Important Facts :Sri Vaishnavism:12th-14th centuryBrahma sampradaya-16th centuryNimbarka sampradaya-13th centuryImportant Notes :Samkhya school:It is most related to the Yoga school of Hinduism and it was influential on other schools of Indian philosophySāmkhya is an enumerationist philosophy whose epistemology accepts three of six pramanas proofs as the only reliable means of gaining knowledgeThe existence of God or supreme being is not directly asserted nor considered relevant by the Samkhya philosophers Sāṃkhya denies the final cause of Ishvara GodWhile the Samkhya school considers the Vedas as a reliable source of knowledge it is an atheistic philosophy according to Paul Deussen and other scholarsA key difference between Samkhya and Yoga schools state scholarsis that Yoga school accepts a personal yet essentially inactive deity or personal godSome 19th and 20th century scholars suggested that Samkhya may have non-Vedic origins Dandekar similarly wrote in 1968 The origin of the Sankhya is to be traced to the pre-Vedic non-Aryan thought complexHere – in Kaushitaki Upanishad and Chandogya Upanishad – the germ are to be found of two of the main ideas of classical SamkhyaSage Kapila is traditionally credited as a founder of the Samkhya schoolThe earliest mention of dualism is in the Rigveda a text that was compiled in the second millennium BCEImportant Notes :Vaiśeṣika darshana was founded by Kaṇāda Kashyapa around the 2nd century BCThe epistemology of Vaiśeṣika school of Hinduism like Buddhism accepted only two reliable means to knowledge: perceptionand inferenceThe Vaiśeṣika system became similar in its philosophical procedures ethical conclusions and soteriology to the Nyāya school of Hinduism but retained its difference in epistemology and metaphysicsAlthough the Vaisheshika system developed independently from the Nyaya school of Hinduism the two became similar and are often studied together In its classical form however the Vaishesika school differed from the Nyaya in one crucial respect: where Nyaya accepted four sources of valid knowledge the Vaishesika accepted only twoImportant Notes :Mimamsa:According to this philosophy liberation is possible by means of karmaMimamsa is a Sanskrit word that means reflection or critical investigationIt is one of six orthodox astika schools of Hinduism The school is known for its philosophical theories on the nature of dharma based on hermeneutics of the VedasThe Mīmāṃsā school was foundational and influential for the vedānticschools which were also known as Uttara-Mīmāṃsā The differences were that the Mīmāṃsā school developed and emphasized karma-kāṇḍa or the study of ritual actions using the four early Vedas while the Vedānta schools developed and emphasized jñana-kāṇḍa the study of knowledge and spirituality using the later parts of Vedas like the UpaniṣadsThe school of Mīmāṃsā consists of both atheistic and theistic doctrines but the school showed little interest in systematic examination of the existence of God Rather it held that the soul is an eternal omnipresent inherently active spiritual essence and focused on the epistemology and metaphysics of dharmaThe Mīmāṃsā school of Hinduism is a form of realismA key text of the Mīmāṃsā school is the Mīmāṃsā Sūtra of JaiminiBetween the Samhitas and Brahmanas the Mimamsa school places greater emphasis to the Brahmanas – the part of Vedas that is a commentary on Vedic ritualsPurva-Mimamsa was just known as the Mimamsa school and the Uttara-Mimamsa as the VedantaschoolThe scholars of Mimamsa school are referred to as the MimamsakasThe core tenets of Pūrva Mīmāṃsā are ritualism orthopraxy anti-asceticism and anti-mysticismThe central aim of the school is elucidation of the nature of dharma understood as a set ritual obligations and prerogatives to be performed properlyImportant Notes :Global Innovation Index :The Global Innovation Index GII is an annual ranking of countries by their capacity for and success in innovation It is published by Cornell University INSEAD and the World Intellectual Property Organization in partnership with other organisations and institutions and is based on both subjective and objective data derived from several sources including the International Telecommunication Union the World Bank and the World Economic ForumImportant Notes :Lingayat communityLingayatism is a distinct Shaivite religious tradition in India Its worship is centered on Hindu god Shiva as the universal god in the iconographic form of Ishtalinga The adherents of this faith are known as Lingayats Lingayatism was founded by the 12th-century philosopher and statesman Basava and spread by his followers called SharanasLingayatism emphasizes qualified monism and bhakti loving devotion to Shiva with philosophical foundations similar to those of the 11th–12th-century South Indian philosopher RamanujaThe terms Lingayatism and Veerashaivism have been used synonymously and Lingayats also referred to as VeerashaivasLingayatism is considered a Hindu sect25 but some Lingayats have sought legal recognition as a religion distinct from HinduismLingayatism shares beliefs with Indian religions such as about reincarnation samsara and karmaContemporary Lingayatism is influential in South India especially in the state of KarnatakaToday Lingayats along with Shaiva Siddhanta followers Tirunelveli Saiva Pillai Nadar Naths Pashupaths of Nepal Kapalikas and others constitute the Shaiva populationThe Lingayat iṣṭaliṅga is an oval-shaped emblem symbolising Parashiva the absolute reality and is worn on the body by a cord hung around the neckBasava is credited with founding Lingayatism and its secular practicesHe was a 12th-century Hindu philosopher statesman Kannada poet in the Shiva-focussed Bhakti movement and a social reformer during the reign of the Kalachuri-dynasty king Bijjala I in Karnataka IndiaBasavanna spread social awareness through his poetry popularly known as Vachanaas Basavanna rejected gender or social discrimination as well as some extant practices such as the wearing of sacred thread and replaced this with the ritual of wearing Ishtalinga necklace with an image of the Shiva LiṅgaLingayat scholars thrived in northern Karnataka during the centuries of rule by Vijayanagara EmpireThe Lingayats likely were a part of the reason why Vijayanagara succeeded in territorial expansion and in withstanding the Deccan Sultanate wars The Lingayat text Sunya sampadane grew out of the scholarly discussions in a Anubhava Mantap and according to Bill Aitken these were compiled at the Vijayanagara court during the reign of Praudha Deva RayaSimilarly the scripture of Lingayatism Basava Purana was completed in 1369 during the reign of Vijayanagara ruler Bukka Raya I Lingayat Veerashaiva thinkers rejected the custodial hold of Brahmins over the Vedas and the shastras but they did not outright reject the Vedic knowledgeThe 13th-century Telugu Virashaiva poet Palkuriki Somanatha author of Basava Purana – a scripture of Veerashaivas for example asserted Virashaivism fully conformed to the Vedas and the shastrasLingayatism teaches a path to an individual’s spiritual progress is viewed and describes it as a six-stage Satsthalasiddhanta This concept progressively evolves the individual starting with the phase of a devoteeShunya in a series of Kannada language texts is equated with the Virashaiva concept of the Supreme In particular the Shunya Sampadane texts present the ideas of Allama Prabhuin a form of dialogue where shunya is that void and distinctionswhich a spiritual journey seeks to fill and eliminate It is the described as state of union of one’s soul with the infinite Shiva the state of blissful mokshaThis Lingayat concept is similar to shunya Brahma concept found in certain texts of Vaishnavism particularly in Odiya such as the poetic Panchasakhas It explains the Nirguna Brahman idea of Vedanta that is the eternal unchanging metaphysical reality as personified void However both in Lingayatism and various flavors of Vaishnavism such as Mahima Dharma the idea of Shunya is closer to the Hindu concept of metaphysical Brahman rather than to the Śūnyatā concept of Buddhism35 However there is some overlap such as in the works of Bhima BhoiThe Lingayats always wear the Ishtalinga held with a necklaceThe Istalinga is made up of light gray slate stone coated with fine durable thick black paste of cow dung ashes mixed with some suitable oil to withstand wear and tearSometime it is made up of ashes mixed with clarified butter The coating is called Kanti coveringThe Lingayats bury their dead The dead are buried in the Dhyana mudra meditating position with their Ishta linga in their left handImportant Notes:Payment banks: Payments banks is a new model of banks conceptualised by the Reserve Bank of India RBI These banks can accept a restricted deposit which is currently limited to ₹1 lakh per customer and may be increased further These banks cannot issue loans and credit cardsBoth current account and savings accounts can be operated by such banksPayments banks can issue services like ATM cards debit cards net-banking and mobile-bankingAirtel has launched India’s first live payments bank Paytm is the second such service to be launched in the country India Post Payments Bank is the third entity to receive payments bank permit after Bharti Airtel and Paytm Aditya Birla group earned payments bank permit on 3 March 2017The minimum capital requirement is ₹100 crore For the first five years the stake of the promoter should remain at least 40 Foreign share holding will be allowed in these banks as per the rules for FDI in private banks in India The voting rights will be regulated by the Banking Regulation Act 1949 The majority of the bank’s board of directors should consist of independent directors appointed according to RBI guidelinesThe bank should be fully networked from the beginning The bank can accept utility bills It cannot form subsidiaries to undertake non-banking activities The banks will be licensed as payments banks under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act 1949 and will be registered as public limited company under the Companies Act 2013The in-principle license is valid for 18 months within which the entities must fulfil the requirements They are not allowed to engage in banking activities within the period FACEBOOK REVIEWS : Powered by Jasper Roberts – Blog |
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MOCK Q418- FRAMED FROM Google Books Q With reference to the Dongria Kondh consider the following statements :1 These are the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal groups worshiping Niyam Raja of sacred Niyamgiri mountain 2 Racially these belong to the Mongoloid group amp linguistically they belong to the Tibeto-Burman groupSelect the correct answer using the code given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AKarbi tribe : Racially these belong to the Mongoloid group amp linguistically they belong to the Tibeto-Burman groupDongria Kondh : Of Odisha These are the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal groups who worship Niyam Raja of sacred Niyamgiri mountain They also won legal battle against Vedanta group over Bauxite mining in the region MOCK Q417- FRAMED FROM Google Books Q Every year a community celebrates a festival Hari Jyoti for planting fruit bearing trees at the beginning of the rains amp the new sowing season Which of the following is such community/ tribe A GondsB Dongria KondhC BondaD KarbiAns AGonds : Of Madhya PradeshKorku tribe : Of Madhya PradeshKarbi tribe : Of AssamLimbo tribe : Of SikkimBonda : Of OdishaDongria Kondh : Of OdishaKorku tribe : Of Madhya PradeshMOCK Q416- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q To fulfill the Government of India’s mission amp to promote the spirit of entrepreneurship in the country Academia Alliance Programme has been formed With whose initiative Academia Alliance Programme has been formed A Niti AyogB Confederation of Indian IndustriesC Startup IndiaD Ministry of New amp Renewable EnergyAns CTo fulfill the Governmentof India’s mission to promote the spirit of entrepreneurship in the country Startup India launched the Startup Academia Alliance programme a unique mentorship opportunity between academic scholars and startups working in similar domains The Startup Academia Alliance aims to reduce the gap between scientific research and its industrial applications in order to increase the efficacy of these technologies and to widen their impact By creating a bridge between academia and industry the Alliance strives to create lasting connections between the stakeholders of the startup ecosystem and implement the third pillar on which the Startup India Action Plan is based – Industry Academia Partnerships and Incubation The first phase of Startup Academia Alliance was kickstarted through partnering with Regional Centre for Biotechnology The Energy and Resources Institute TERI Council on Energy Environment and Water and TERI School of Advanced Studies Renowned scholars from these institutes in fields such as renewableenergy biotechnology healthcare and life sciences were taken on board to provide mentorship and guidance to startups working in relevant arenasMOCK Q415- FRAMED FROM SPECTRUM HISTORY Q Consider the following statements :1 In 1916 session Congress accepted theMuslim League demand of separate electorates 2 Communal award accepted all the muslim communal demands contained in the 14 pointsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CIn 1916 session Congress accepted the Muslim League demand of separate electorates amp the Congress amp The League presented joint demands to the governmentCommunal award accepted all the muslim communal demands contained in the 14 pointsMOCK Q414- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With respect to the South Asia Sub Regional Economic Cooperation SASEC consider the following statements :1 SASEC program set up in 2001 to promote regional prosperity by improving cross border connectivity 2 World Trade Organisation serves as the secretariat for the SAESC member CountriesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns ASASEC program set up in 2001 to promote regional prosperity by improving cross border connectivityIt brings together Bangladesh Bhutan India Maldives Myanmar Nepal Srilanka Manila Phillipines based Asian development Bank ADB serves as the secretariat for the SAESC member CountriesMOCK Q413- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With respect to the Permanent Court of Arbitration PCA consider the following statements :1 PCA was established by treaty at the first Hague Peace Conference at Netherlands2 The order is not binding on the countries as it can be appealed in the UN tribunal3 121 member states are the part of the PCA including IndiaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans APermanent Court of Arbitration PCA:PCA was established by treaty at the first Hague Peace Conference at Netherlands in 1899The order is binding on the countries as there is no appeal process in the UN tribunal121 member states 119 members of the United Nations as well as Kosovo amp Palestine are the part of the PCA India is a part to the PCA according to the Hague Convention on 1899 MOCK Q412- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With respect to the Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing amp Urban Development APMCHUD consider the following statements :1 Sixth edition of the conference held in New Delhi in 2016 with the theme “ A Vision for sustainable Urbanisation in The Asia Pacific by 2020”2 It was established under the aegis amp support of UN HabitatSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are in correctAns BSixth edition of the conference held in New Delhi in 2016 with the theme “ Emerging Urban Forms –Policy Reforms amp Governance Structures in the Context of New Urban Agenda”2006 THEME : “ A Vision for sustainable Urbanisation in The Asia Pacific by 2020MOCK Q411- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With respect to the International Trade Centre consider the following statements :1 ITC is the joint technical corporation agency of the UN conference on trade amp Development UNCTAD amp World Trade Organisation WTO2 They are subordinate to the United Nations amp derive most of their financial resources other than the Union Nation BudgetsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are in correctAns AITC is the joint technical corporation agency of the UN conference on trade amp Development UNCTAD amp World Trade Organisation WTOITC’s regular programme is financed in equal parts by WTO amp UNMOCK Q410- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q Which among the following crops have been classified under the category of Minor Forest products 1 Tendu Patta2 Bamboo3 Pulpwood 4 SoapnutSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 124B Only 1 amp 3C 134D Only 1 amp 4Ans AThe Major Forest Products comprise Pulpwood Sandalwood Social Forestry that incudes Fuel and Timber The Minor Forest Products include the items such as tamarind curry leaf Tendu Patta gallnut Cane Soapnut tree moss and now Bamboo alsoMOCK Q409- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With reference to the news what is “INSTEX” A It is a 2000 ft long device to start clean up in the North Pacific OceanB It is a transaction channel that will allow companies to continue trading with Iran despite US sanctionsC It is a natural gas pipeline being developed with the participation of the Asian Development BankD It is the rule book that sets out how countries will provide information about their Nationally Determined Contributions Ans B• The transaction channel will allow European businesses to trade with Iran despite strict US sanctions• Though the payment channel is a project of Britain France and Germany it will receive the formal endorsement of all 28 EU members• It will support legitimate European trade with Iran focusing initially on the sectors most essential to the Iranian population such as pharmaceutical medical devices and agri-food goods• In the longer term INSTEX aims to be open to third countries wanting to trade with Iran• However INSTEX is not yet operational as it needs Iran to set up a parallel structure of its own which may take some time to complete• While it is aimed at small and medium-sized companies it is expected to send an important message to Iran about Europe’s commitment to keep the nuclear deal aliveObjective The launch of the special payment channel is a clear and practical demonstration of Europe’s commitment to continuing the nuclear dealIt however does not in any way preclude the European Union from addressing Iran’s hostile and destabilising activitiesEurope has toughened its tone on Iran’s ballistic missile programme human rights record and interference in Middle East conflictsMOCK Q408- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana consider the following statements :1 Spouse will not be entitled to receive pension in case of death2 Workers covered under the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation will not be entitled to pension3 It is 100 funded by the Union government Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B 2 amp 3C Only 2D 1 amp 2Ans C• The unorganised sector workers with income of less than Rs 15000 per month and who belong to the entry age group of 18-40 years will be eligible for the scheme • Those workers should not be covered under New Pension Scheme NPS Employees’ State Insurance Corporation ESIC scheme or Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation EPFO• He or she should not be an income tax payerThe workers of unorganised sector can be home based workers street vendors mid-day meal workers head loaders brick kiln workers cobblers rag pickers domestic workers washer men rickshaw pullers landless labourers own account workers agricultural workers construction workers beedi workers handloom workers leather workers audio- visual workers and similar other occupationsBenefits under Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan YojanaMinimum Assured Pension: Each subscriber under the scheme will receive minimum assured pension of Rs 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 yearsIn case of death during receipt of pension: If the subscriber dies during the receipt of pension his or her spouse will be entitled to receive 50 percent of the pension as family pension This family pension is applicable only to spouseIn case of death before the age of 60 years: If a beneficiary has given regular contribution and dies before attaining the age of 60 years his or her spouse will be entitled to continue the scheme subsequently by payment of regular contribution or may even exit the schemeEqual contribution by the Central Government: Under the PM-SYM the prescribed age-specific contribution by the beneficiary and the matching contribution by the Central Government will be made on a ‘50:50 basis’MOCK Q407- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q Which of the following best describes SHREYAS scheme A It is the scheme launched by HRD Ministry to promote entrepreneurship by mentoring nurturing and facilitating startupsB It is the scheme implemented by Sector Skill Council for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and SkillsC It is the scheme launched by HRD ministry for translational and advanced research in Science to fund science projectsD It is the scheme implemented by Institution’s Innovation Council for self-actualisation providing opportunities for a life-long learningAns CSHREYAS: Scheme for Higher Education Youth in Apprenticeship and SkillsFunctioning of the Scheme:The scheme will be operated in conjunction with National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme NAPS which provides for placing of apprentices or trainees up to 10 percent of the total work force in every industry The scheme will be implemented by the Sector Skill Councils SSCs initially in the Banking Finance Insurance Services BFSI Retail Health care Telecom Logistics Media Management services ITeS and Apparel More sectors would be added over time with emerging apprenticeship demandMOCK Q406- FRAMED FROM IUCN WEBSITE Q With reference to the Sandbag Climate Campaign consider the following statements :1 It was launched as a campaign on the European Union’s Emission Trading Scheme2 It addresses the negative effects of global warming as a result of heightened socioeconomic and environmental vulnerabilitiesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns A–Sandbag or Sandbag Climate Campaign is a Community Interest Company campaigning for changes to European climate change policy especially emissions trading The organisation was launched in 2008 by Bryony Worthington and was the first and founding member of The Guardian’s Environment NetworkSandbag was launched as a campaign on the European Union’s Emission Trading Scheme allowing its members to campaign to reduce the number of permits in circulation and to purchase permits and cancel themClimate Vulnerable Forum CVF: The forum addresses the negative effects of global warming as a result of heightened socioeconomic and environmental vulnerabilitiesMOCK Q405- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana consider the following statements :1 It will provide assured income to all Institutional Land holders of Rs 6000 per year2 It is based on providing guaranteed amount of Rs 1000/- or Rs2000 per hectare in case of drought or loss of crop by the animalsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D• The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi will provide assured income to small and marginal farmers• All Small and Marginal Farmers SMF with 2 hectares of cultivable land will be provided income support of Rs 6000 per year• The amount will be transferred directly into their account in 3 equal installments• The complete expenditure of Rs 75000 crore for the scheme will borne by the Union Government in 2019-20• Over 12 crore farmer families will be benefitted under the schemeThe scheme is being implemented with effect from December 2018The following categories of beneficiaries of higher economic status shall not be eligible for benefit under the scheme A All Institutional Land holders B Farmer families in which one or more of its members belong to following categories: 1 Former and present holders of constitutional posts2 Former and present Ministers/ State Ministers and former/present Members of LokSabha/ RajyaSabha/ State Legislative Assemblies/ State Legislative Councilsformer and present Mayors of Municipal Corporations former and present Chairpersons of District Panchayats3 All serving or retired officers and employees of Central/ State Government Ministries /Offices/Departments and its field units Central or State PSEs and Attached offices /Autonomous Institutions under Government as well as regular employees of the Local Bodies Excluding Multi Tasking Staff /Class IV/Group D employees4 All superannuated/retired pensioners whose monthly pension is ₹10000/-or more Excluding Multi Tasking Staff / Class IV/Group D employees of above category5 All Persons who paid Income Tax in last assessment year6 Professionals like Doctors Engineers Lawyers Chartered Accountants and Architects registered with Professional bodies and carrying out profession by undertaking practicesMOCK Q404- FRAMED FROM Spectrum- Modern India Q Swadeshi Sangam was formed to ispire the local masses through magic lantern lectures Swadeshi songsWho was/were the members of the Swadeshi Sangam 1 VO Chidambaram Pillai2 Abanindranath Tagore3 Subramania SivaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 1C 2 amp 3D 123Ans AIn Tirunelveli Tamil Nadu VO Chidambaram Pillai Subramania Siva amp Some lawyers formed the Swadeshi Sangam which inspired the local massesMOCK Q403- FRAMED FROM Spectrum- Modern India Q With reference to the Indian National Movement What was Official Secrets Act A Under this act Natu brothers were deported without trial amp Tilak imprisoned on charges of seditionB Repressive laws under IPC section 124 A were amplified with new provisions under IPC 156 AC It was the administrative measure to curb the freedom of pressD Under this act It ensured greater government control over the universitiesAns COfficial Secrets Act : 1904 It was the administrative measure to curb the freedom of press1897 : Natu brothers were deported without trial amp Tilak imprisoned on charges of sedition1898 : Repressive laws under IPC section 124 A were amplified with new provisions under IPC 156 AIndian Universities Act 1904 : greater government control over the universitiesMOCK Q402- FRAMED FROM The Hindu Q With reference to the Halogen Light Bulbs consider the following statements :1 White coating also known as Phosphor coating on the glass absorbs UV light amp protect from the UV rays2 They have the same tungsten filament as the typical incandescent light bulbs 3 Fluorescent coating is often used in these bulbs to add brightnessSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B 123C Only 2D 1 amp 2Ans CFluorescent bulbs : White coating also known as Phosphor coating on the glass absorbs UV light amp protect from the UV raysVapour lamps : Fluorescent coating is often used in these bulbs to add brightnessA halogen lamp also known as a tungsten halogen quartz-halogen or quartz iodine lamp is an incandescent lamp consisting of a tungsten filament sealed into a compact transparent envelope that is filled with a mixture of an inert gas and a small amount of a halogensuch as iodine or bromine The combination of the halogen gas and the tungsten filament produces a halogen cycle chemical reaction which redeposits evaporated tungsten to the filament increasing its life and maintaining the clarity of the envelope For this to happen a halogen lamp must be operated at a higher envelope temperature 250° C 482° F1 than a standard vacuum incandescent lamp of similar power and operating life this also produces light with higher luminous efficacy and color temperature The small size of halogen lamps permits their use in compact optical systems for projectors and illumination The small glass envelope may be enclosed in a much larger outer glass bulb for a bigger package the outer jacket will be at a much lower and safer temperature and it also protects the hot bulb from harmful contamination and makes the bulb mechanically more similar to a conventional lamp that it might replaceStandard and halogen incandescent bulbs are much less efficient than LED and compact fluorescent lamps and have been banned in many jurisdictions because of thisMOCK Q401- FRAMED FROM The Hindu Q Consider the following statements :1 Origin of Bitcoin is virtually anonymous amp is not monitored by any Central bank or Government2 Anyone with a bitcoin address can send amp receive bitcoins from anyone else with a bitcoin address Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CBitcoin is a cryptocurrency a form of electronic cash It is a decentralized digital currency without a central bank or single administrator that can be sent from user to user on the peer-to-peer bitcoin network without the need for are verified by network nodes through cryptography and recorded in a public distributed ledger called a blockchain Bitcoin was invented by an unknown person or group of people using the name Satoshi Nakamoto and released as open-source software in 2009 Bitcoins are created as a reward for a process known as mining They can be exchanged for other currencies products and services Research produced by the University of Cambridge estimates that in 2017 there were 29 to 58 million unique users using a cryptocurrency wallet most of them using bitcoin Bitcoin has been criticized for its use in illegal transactions its high electricity consumption price volatility thefts from exchanges and the possibility that bitcoin is an economic bubble Bitcoin has also been used as an investment although several regulatory agencies have issued investor alerts about bitcoinMOCK Q400- FRAMED FROM M LAXMIKANTH Q Consider the following statements :1In India Only the powers of the Federal Government are enumerated in the constitution amp the residuary powers are left to the states 2 Government of India Act 1935 provided for three fold enumeration ie Federal Provincial amp CurrentSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B Only 2C Both are correct D Both are incorrectAns B-In US Only the powers of the Federal Government are enumerated in the constitution amp the residuary powers are left to the states -Power to make laws with respect to the residuary subjects which are not enumerated in any of the three list is vested in the ParliamentMOCK Q399- FRAMED FROM M LAXMIKANTH Q Which among the following statement best describes “Discretionary Grants” A It empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance B These are the grants in lieu of export duties on Jute amp Jute products to the states of Assam BiharOrissa amp West BengalC Theses are the grants for promoting welfare of the scheduled tribes in a stateD These are the grants that empower both the centre amp states to make any grants for any public purpose even if it is not within their respective legislative competenceAns DStatutory Grants : Article 75 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistanceOther Grants : These are the grants in lieu of export duties on Jute amp Jute products to the states of Assam Bihar Orissa amp West BengalDiscretionary Grants :These are the grants that empower both the centre amp states to make any grants for any public purpose even if it is not within their respective legislative competenceMOCK Q398- FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With reference to the news what is Talanoa dialogue A It is a process designed to help countries enhance and implement their Nationally Determined Contributions by 2020B It is a process to help countries by forming the rule book to implement the Paris Climate AgreementC It gives countries a common framework for reporting and reviewing progress towards their climate targetsD It provides a global platform for the conservation of Migratory animals amp their habitatsAns A–The 2017 United Nations Climate Change Conference COP23 was an international meeting of political leaders non-state actors and activists to discuss environmental issues It was held at UN Campus in Bonn Germany from 6–17 November 2017Although COP23 focused primarily on technical details of the Paris Agreement COP23 concluded with what was called the ‘Fiji Momentum for Implementation’ which outlined the steps that need to be taken in 2018 to make the Paris Agreement operational and launched the –Talanoa Dialogue – a process designed to help countries enhance and implement their Nationally Determined Contributions by 2020MOCK Q397 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q Consider the following statements :1 Mangroves for the Future MFF has participation of Asian amp African nations only2 IUCN amp United Nation Development Programme UNDP developed MFF in 20063 MFF not only conserves Mangrove forests but includes all types of coastal ecosystems like coral reefsestuaries wetlands etcSelect the correct answer using the correct codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DMangroves for the Future MFFLocation: Member countries: Bangladesh Cambodia India Indonesia Maldives Myanmar Pakistan Seychelles Sri Lanka Thailand and Viet Nam Outreach countries: Malaysia Dialogue countries: Kenya and TanzaniaDuration: Established in 2006 MFF is currently in its third phase 2015 – 2018 Project Background: The devastation caused by the Indian Ocean tsunami of December 2004 laid bare the vital link between coastal ecosystems and human livelihoods It was United States President Bill Clinton’s vision that rebuilding in tsunami-hit areas should improve natural infrastructure and strengthen resilience against future natural disasters In response to this vision IUCN International Union for Conservation of Nature and the United Nations Development Programme UNDP developed Mangroves for the Future in 2006 Since then MFF has grown to include eight institutional partners plus a growing number of countries At the launch of the Tsunami Legacy report at the United Nations in New York in April 2009 Bill Clinton acclaimed MFF as one of the most positive and forward-looking developments of the post-tsunami periodMangroves for the Future MFF is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal ecosystem conservation for sustainable development Co-chaired by IUCN and UNDP MFF provides a platform for collaboration among the many different agencies sectors and countries which are addressingchallenges to coastal ecosystem and livelihood issues The goal is to promote an integrated ocean-wide approach to coastal management and to building the resilience of ecosystem-dependent coastal communities Mangroves are the flagship of the initiative but MFF is inclusive of all types of coastal ecosystem such as coral reefs estuaries lagoons sandy beaches seagrass and wetlandsMOCK Q396 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q Which one of the following best describes the term Malacca Dilemma sometimes seen in news A It refers to the demarcation line used initially by the government of republic of China B ONGC Videsh Limited signed a contract with the petro Vietnam to jointly explore petroleum resourcesC It is the Nine Dash line area that covers most of the South China sea amp overlaps exclusive economic zoneD It signifies China’s dependency for the energy needs on West AsiaAns DThe “Malacca Dilemma” is a term coined by their President Hu Jintao2003 on the over-reliance on the Malacca Straitssea-route where 80 of their energy needsoil imports pass en-route from the Middle East Angola etcshipping lanes through the Malacca Straitsbetween Malaysia and Indonesia This area is also prone to piracy sometimesConflict in the region and their effect on China’s geopolitical and energy strategies and other issues that can crop up from time to time together constitute the “Malacca Dilemma”MOCK Q395 – FRAMED FROM GCCA WEBSITE Q Global Climate Change Alliance Initiative for country’s vulnerability to climate change is managed by the :A The European CommissionB The Global Environment FacilityC UNDPD World BankAns AThe Global Climate Change Alliance Plus GCCA is a European Union flagship initiative which is helpingthe world’s most vulnerable countries to address climate change Having started with just four pilot projects in 2008 it has become a major climate initiative that has funded over 70 projects of nationalregional and worldwide scope in Africa Asia the Caribbean and the Pacific This EU initiative helps mainly Small Islands Developing States SIDS and Least Developed Countries LDCs increase their resilience to climate change The GCCA also supports these group of countries in implementing their commitments resulting from the 2015 Paris Agreement on Climate Change COP21 in line with the2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and the new European Consensus on DevelopmentThe GCCA initiative is making a significant contribution towards achieving the overall target of at least 20 of the EU budget spent for climate action All GCCA projects must primarily aim at facilitating the transition to a climate-resilient low-carbon future in line with the 2°C targetGCCA funding increased from EUR 3175 million in the first phase 2007-2014 to EUR 420 million in the second phase 2014-2020 Read more on financial resourcesMOCK Q394 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q Which among the following topics are exempted from the courses covered under the LEAP amp ARPIT PROGRAMME for higher education faculty 1 Establishment of the National Anti-profiteering Authority2 Internet of Things3 Tools techniques and experiments in reducing Greenhouse gases emission4 Methodology of Teaching SanskritSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 4B Only 1C 1 amp 3D 124Ans CHRD Ministry launches LEAP and ARPIT programmes for higher education facultyThe courses cover a diverse range of topics such as:Indian culture and Heritage Studies Tribal and Regional languages Urdu French StudiesPedagogical Innovations amp Research Methodology Tools techniques and experiments in Earth ScienceLatest Trends in Pedagogy and Assessment Mathematics Statistics Zoology Chemistry Physics Biotechnology Development and Counselling Marine Science Calculus Real Time Power Analysis and Smart GridNeural Networks and Deep Learning amp Knowledge discovery Civil Infrastructure for Smart City DevelopmentICT in Science and Maths teaching Engineering Mechanics Design Spectrum DIY Manufacturing TechnologyInnovation and Best Practices in Educational Skills Advanced Concepts in Fluid Mechanics Energy Systems EngineeringLeadership and Governance in Higher Education Engineering Mechanics Physics of Semiconductors and Devices Electrical EngineeringPublic Policy and Administration Bio-Medical engineering Metallurgical Engineering and Materials Sciences Chemical EngineeringEnglish Language Teaching Internet of ThingsHindi Literature amp Linguistics Astronomy and AstrophysicsMethodology of Teaching Sanskrit Aerospace Engineering Tourism and Hospitality ManagementEffective Creations and Innovative Researches in Medieval Gujarati Literature Political Science Economics Psychology Development Perspectives in AgricultureLibrary amp Information Science Ethics Human Rights and Environment Anthropology Gender/Women’s studies Law Social and Rural DevelopmentDisaster Management Climate change MOCK Q393 – FRAMED FROM NITIN SIGHANIA Q Which among the following is/are correctly matched :Community Place1 Dangasia Gujarat2 Gond Madhya Pradesh3 Mirgan OdishaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DDangasia GujaratGond Madhya PradeshMirgan Odisha MOCK Q392 – FRAMED FROM SPECTRUM HISTORY Q BR Ambedkar is associated With Which of the following 1 Bahishkrita Hitkarini Sabha2 Hindu Mahasabha3 Hindu Code billSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 1C 2 amp 3D 123Ans ALala Lajpat Rai involvement with Hindu Mahasabha leaders gathered criticism from the Naujawan Bharat Sabha as the Mahasabhas were non-secular which did not conform with the system laid out by the Indian National CongressHindu MahasabhaMOCK Q391 – FRAMED FROM IUCN WEBSITE Q With reference to the Least Developed Countries Fund consider the following statements:1 This fund has been initiated in 2002 by the The Global Environment Facility GEF2 Adaptation amp Mitigation are one of the area of focus of this fundSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AThis fund has been initiated in 2002 by the The Global Environment Facility GEFAdaptation is one of the area of focus of this fundMOCK Q390 – FRAMED FROM INDIAN CULTUREGOV Q Consider the following :Sites Place1 Aalampur Temple : Telanagana2 European Tomb : Gujarat3 Khajurao Monuments : Madhya PradeshSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 3C 2 amp 3D 123Ans D Other Important Sites :Maharaja Chhatrasal Museum Complex : Madhya PradeshMahabalipuram : Tamil NaduUparkot : GujaratKumarakom : KeralaMOCK Q389 – FRAMED FROM IUCN WEBSITE Q389 The Climate Chain Coalition CCC to support collaboration among members and stakeholders to advance blockchain and related digital solutions emerged at :A 2017 United Nations Climate Change ConferenceB One Planet SummitC COP-24 Katowice D Paris Climate SummitAn BThe Climate Chain Coalition CCC was born during the One Planet Summit in December in Paris France The Coalition engages a multi-stakeholder group working on distributed ledger technology DLT to collaborate on mobilizing climate financePlz Note : The 2017 United Nations Climate Change Conference was an international meeting of political leaders non-state actors and activists to discuss environmental issues It was held at UN Campus in Bonn from 6–17 November 2017 Also known as: COP23 UNFCCC CMP13 Kyoto Protocol CMA2 Paris AgreementMOCK Q388 – FRAMED FROM IUCN WEBSITE Q “Partnership for Market Readiness” is an initiative which is managed by the :A Global Environment FacilityB World BankC United Nation Environment ProgrammeD UNDPAns BPartnership for Market Readiness ADMINISTERED BY: The World BankAREA OF FOCUS Mitigation DATE OPERATIONAL: 2011MOCK Q387 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q387 With reference to the religious practices in India Sarvastivadin belongs to which ancient school A TheravadaB MahayanismC RajagirikarsD HetuvadinsAns ASarvāstivāda were an early school of Buddhism established around the reign of Asoka third century BCEIt was particularly known as an Abhidharma tradition with a unique set of seven Abhidharma worksMOCK Q386 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q386 With reference to the Initial Coin Offerings ICO consider the following statements :1 It is like Initial Public Offer that refers to the issue of cryptocurrency in consideration of funds received from investors2 17 billion has been raised globally through ICOs between 2014 amp 2017Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns A27 billion has been raised globally through ICOs between 2014 amp 2017- An initial coin offering ICO or initial currency offering is a type of funding using cryptocurrenciesMostly the process is done by crowdfunding but private ICO’s are becoming more common In an ICO a quantity of cryptocurrency is sold in the form of tokens coins to speculators or investors in exchange for legal tender or other cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin or Ethereum The tokens sold are promoted as future functional units of currency if or when the ICO’s funding goal is met and the project launches In some cases like Ethereum the tokens are required to use the system for its purposesAn ICO can be a source of capital for startup companiesMOCK Q385 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q385 Nanotechnology can significantly increase manufacturing at far reduced costs What are the advantages of the Nanotechnology 1 Anti scratch components of the automobiles are possible using the Nanotechnology2 Bullet proof amp stain resistant clothing can be made using the Nanotechnology3 Nanotechnology offer cleaner technologies amp cleaner environmentSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 2B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans ANano sized particles can acculumate in various body parts such as nasal cavities lungs amp brainDue to their minute size nano particles are able to accumulate in the environmentMOCK Q384 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q With reference to the “India International Exchange” consider the following statements :1 It was opened very recently at the International Financial Services Centre IFSC in Gujarat2 With this it will be the third largest International Exchange in the world in terms of order responseSelect the correct answer using the using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D-It was opened IN 2017 at the International Financial Services Centre IFSC in GujaratBUT NOT VERY RECENTLY – With this it will be the fastest International Exchange in the world in terms of order response with the trade speed of four microseconds-This is better than BSE’s domestic exchange in Mumbai which has an order response time of six microseconds- Singapore is the second fastest International exchange has the order response of 60 microsecondsMOCK Q383 – FRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q383 In Context with the “Bio-energy with carbon capture and storage BECCS” consider the following statements :1 It is a greenhouse gas mitigation technology which produces negative carbon dioxide emissions2 BECSS works by involving the process of pyrogenic carbon capture and storage PyCCS or biocharSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns A-Bio-energy with carbon capture and storage BECCS is a potential greenhouse gas mitigation technology which produces negative carbon dioxide emissions by combining bioenergy energy from biomass use with geologic carbon capture and storage1 The concept of BECCS is drawn from the integration of trees and crops which extract carbon dioxide CO2 from the atmosphere as they grow the use of this biomass in processing industries or power plants and the application of carbon capture and storage via CO2injection into geological formations2 There are other non-BECCS forms of carbon dioxide removal and storage that include technologies such as biochar carbon dioxide air captureand biomass burial3 and enhanced weatheringAccording to a recent Biorecro report there is 550 000 tonnes CO2/year in total BECCS capacity currently operating divided between three different facilities as of January 2012In the IPCC Fourth Assessment Report by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change IPCC BECCS was indicated as a key technology for reaching low carbon dioxide atmospheric concentration targets8 The negative emissions that can be produced by BECCS has been estimated by the Royal Society to be equivalent to a 50 to 150 ppmdecrease in global atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations9 and according to the International Energy Agency the BLUE map climate change mitigation scenario calls for more than 2 gigatonnes of negative CO2 emissions per year with BECCS in 205010 According to Stanford University 10 gigatonnes is achievable by this dateAccording to the OECD Achieving lower concentration targets 450 ppm depends significantly on the use of BECCS13An alternative to BECSS is pyrogenic carbon capture and storage PyCCS or biochar14 Which are superior in order to fix carbon in a more stable way: solid C for longer times Carbon dioxide injected into geologic formations eventually leaks back into the atmosphere due to seismic activity and natural faults and problems with the seal of the ancient injection pitsFRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q382 Consider the following :Tribes Place1 Bhoksa Uttarakhand2 Misting Sikkim3 Gonds Madhya PradeshSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 1 amp 2D 123Ans AMisting tribe is in AssamFRAMED FROM THE HINDU Q381 Which of the following best describes Forward linkages with respect to the economic activity 1 These refer to the transactions with the consumers2 For food processing industry these linkages are associated with the primary processing centresSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2 C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AForward linkages :-These refer to the transactions with the consumers- These linkages are associated with the retail storesBackward linkages :-These refer to the transactions with the suppliers-For food processing industry these linkages are associated with the primary processing centresFRAMED FROM LUCENT PUBLICATIONS Q380 Consider the following :Hill Ranges Place1 Rajpipla : Gujarat2 Mahadeo : Madhya Pradesh3 Maikala range : Andhra PradeshSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 1 amp 2D 123Ans CMaikala range : Madhya Pradesh amp ChhatisgarhFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q379 Consider the following statements :1 Loktak lake the biggest fresh water lake is home to the endangered Sangai deer2 Keibul Lamjao is an integral part of the Loktak LakeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1 B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CLok tak lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India and is famous for the phumdis heterogeneous mass of vegetation soil and organic matter at various stages of decomposition floating over it The lake is located near Moirang in Manipurstate IndiaThe etymology of Loktak is Lok stream and tak the endThe largest of all the phumdis covers an area of 40 km215 sq mi and is situated on the southeastern shore of the lake Located on this phumdi Keibul Lamjao National Park is the only floating national park in the world The park is the last natural refuge of the endangered Sangai state animal Rucervus eldii eldii or Manipur brown-antlered deer Cervus eldi eldi one of three subspecies of Eld’s deerThe Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in India It is 40 km2 154 sq mi in area the only floating park in the world located in North East India and an integral part of Loktak LakeThe national park is characterized by many floating decomposed plant materials locally called phumdis To preserve the natural refuge of the endangered Manipur Eld’s deer or brow-antlered deer Cervus eldi eldi or sangai also called the dancing deer listed as an endangered species by IUCN the park which was initially declared to be a sanctuary in 1966 was subsequently declared to be a national park in 1977 through a gazette notification The act has generated local support and public awarenessFRAMED FROM SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENTUNORG Q378 “Championing Green Growth and Climate Resilience” to promote green growth emerged at :A Global Green Growth InstituteB GreenpeaceC European Environment Agency D World Sustainable Development Summit 2011Ans AThe Global Green Growth Institute GGGI is a treaty-based international organization headquartered in Seoul South Korea The organization aims to promote green growth a growth paradigm that is characterized by a balance of economic growth and environmental sustainability GGGI provides research and stakeholder engagement for green growth plans especially in developing countries aiming to replace the more typical paradigm based on industrial developmentFounded to support green economic growth that simultaneously addresses poverty reduction job creation social inclusion and environmental sustainability GGGI works across four priority areas that are considered to be essential to transforming national economies including energy water land use and green citiesMotto Championing Green Growth and Climate ResilienceFormation 16 June 2010Headquarters Seoul Republic of KoreaMembership 30 Member countriesCouncil chair Ban Ki MoonDirector-General Frank RijsbermanBudget USD 55 million 2018Q377 The term “Climate Neutrality” sometimes mentioned in the news are related to :A World Wild life FundB UNFCCC SecretariatC Biocarbon FundD World wildlife TrustAns BThe UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015 The following year the secretariatlaunched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Nowas part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the worldThe UNFCCC secretariat UN Climate Change was established in 1992 when countries adopted the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change UNFCCCWith the subsequent adoption of the Kyoto Protocol in 1997 and the Paris Agreement in 2015 Parties to these three agreements have progressively reaffirmed the secretariat’s role as the United Nations entity tasked with supporting the global response to the threat of climate changeSince 1995 the secretariat is located in Bonn GermanyThe secretariat provides technical expertise and assists in the analysis and review of climate change information reported by Parties and in the implementation of the Kyoto mechanisms It also maintains the registry for Nationally Determined Contributions NDC established under the Paris Agreement a key aspect of implementation of the Paris AgreementThe secretariat organizes and supports between two and four negotiating sessions each year The largest and most important is the Conference of the Parties held annually and hosted in different locations around the globe It is the largest annual United Nations conference attended on average by around 25000 participants In addition to these major conferences the secretariat organizes annual sessions of the so-called subsidiary bodies as well as a large number of meetings and workshops throughout the yearIn recent years the secretariat also supports the Marrakech Partnership for Global Climate Action agreed by governments to signal that successful climate action requires strong support from a wide range of actors including regions cities business investors and all parts of civil society At UN Climate Change Conferences a large number of events demonstrate how non-Party stakeholders are working with governments and the UN system to implement the Paris AgreementFRAMED FROM NDC PARTNERSHIPORG Q376 With reference to the Special Climate Change Fund consider the following statements :1 It was established in 1991 under UNFCCC to finance projects which enable the adaptation to climate change2 It is operated by United Nation Environment Programme UNEP amp World Meteorological Organisation WMOSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DIt was established in 2001 under UNFCCC to finance projects which enable the adaptation to climate changeIt is operated by Global Environment Facility GEFEXPLANATION :In 2001 Parties to the UNFCCC established the Special Climate Change Fund SCCF to support climate change activities that are complementary to the GEF’s climate change projects with a special focus on the most vulnerable countries The objective of the Special Climate Change Fund SCCF is to support adaptation and technology transfer projects and programs that: are countryFRAMED FROM IUCNORG Q375 Which among the following country is not the member of the “Mangroves for The Future” A Cambodia B MyanmarC LaosD MaldivesAns CMangroves for the Future MFFLocation: Member countries: Bangladesh Cambodia India Indonesia Maldives Myanmar Pakistan Seychelles Sri Lanka Thailand and Vietnam Outreach countries: Malaysia Dialogue countries: Kenya and TanzaniaDuration: Established in 2006 MFF is currently in its third phase 2015 – 2018 Project Background: The devastation caused by the Indian Ocean tsunami of December 2004 laid bare the vital link between coastal ecosystems and human livelihoods It was United States President Bill Clinton’s vision that rebuilding in tsunami-hit areas should improve natural infrastructure and strengthen resilience against future natural disasters In response to this vision IUCN International Union for Conservation of Nature and the United Nations Development Programme UNDP developed Mangrovesfor the Future in 2006 Since then MFF has grown to include eight institutional partners plus a growing number of countries At the launch of the Tsunami Legacy report at the United Nations in New York in April 2009 Bill Clinton acclaimed MFF as one of the most positive and forward-looking developments of the post-tsunami periodMangroves for the Future MFF is a unique partner-led initiative to promote investment in coastal ecosystem conservation for sustainable development Co-chaired by IUCN and UNDP MFF provides a platform for collaboration among the many different agencies sectors and countries which are addressing challenges to coastal ecosystem and livelihood issues The goal is to promote an integrated ocean-wide approach to coastal management and to building the resilience of ecosystem-dependent coastal communities Mangroves are the flagship of the initiative but MFF is inclusive of all types of coastal ecosystem such as coral reefs estuaries lagoons sandy beaches seagrass and wetlandsFRAMED FROM The Hindu Q374 Which among the following is/are classified under the Third Generation Vaccines 1 DTP vaccine2 DNA Vaccine3 Polio VaccineSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 3B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D Only 2Ans DDTP vaccine – Second generation VaccineDNA Vaccine- Third generation VaccinePolio Vaccine- First generation VaccineDNA vaccination is a technique for protecting against disease by injection with genetically engineered DNA so cells directly produce an antigen producing a protective immunological response DNA vaccines have potential advantages over conventional vaccines including the ability to induce a wider range of immune response typesSeveral DNA vaccines are available for veterinary use Currently no DNA vaccines have been approved for human use Research is investigating the approach for viral bacterial and parasitic diseases in humans as well as for several cancersApplicationsNo DNA vaccines have been approved for human use in the United States Few experimental trials have evoked a response strong enough to protect against disease and the technique’s usefulness remains to be proven in humans A veterinary DNA vaccine to protect horses from West Nile virus has been approvedFirst-Generation Vaccines Attenuated and inactivated vaccines are identified in the first generation which use a primary method in their production Attenuated pathogens full organisms or inactivated bacterial toxin which are effectively immunogenic are used in making these vaccines2nd Generation Vaccines:-The second generation vaccines were created in order to minimize the risks of having the pathogen revert to a dangerous formThe way these vaccines work is that they do not contain the whole organism but rather subunits Subunits may consist of the toxins that the pathogen create if they are bacterial Another example of subunit vaccines are those that only contain protein sections of the pathogen such as an acellular formA great example of a 2nd generation vaccine is DTaP The vaccine contains diptheria toxoid tetanus toxoid pertussis toxoid as well as the acellular version of pertussisAs with the issues with the 1st generation of vaccines the 2nd generation vaccines can generate antibody response and T-helper response but AGAIN no T-Killer responseFRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS Q373 Which among the following is/are the examples of The Near Field Communication 1 Public transport card readers2 Smart phones3 Touch payment terminalsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DNear-field communication NFC is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm 16 in of each other1NFC devices are used in contactless payment systems similar to those used in credit cards and electronic ticket smartcards and allow mobile payment to replace or supplement these systems This is sometimes referred to as NFC/CTLS Contactless or CTLS NFC NFC is used for social networking for sharing contacts photos videos or files2 NFC-enabled devices can act as electronic identity documents and keycards3 NFC offers a low-speed connection with simple setup that can be used to bootstrap more capable wireless connectionsFRAMED FROM SHANKAR ENVIRONMENT Q372 With respect to the Global Tiger Forum GTF consider the following statements :1 It is an international symposium to save Tigers in the world with support of South Asian Countries2 Headquarter of the GTF is located in India because India has the largest tiger population in the world Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns BGTF is an intergovernmental body to undertake worldwide campaign amp a common programme to save tigers in the worldInternational Symposium on Tiger held at New Delhi during February 1993 adopted a Delhi declaration on Tiger conservation Headquarter of the GTF is located in India because India has the largest tiger population in the world FRAMED FROM MAJID HUSSAIN’S INDIAN GEOGRAPHY Q371 Consider the following :1 Jai Samand Lake : Largest Artificial lake2 Pulicat lake : Has a largest number of islands within3 Vembanad lake : Largest KayalsWhich among the above is/are correctly matched A Only 2B 1 amp 3C 2 amp 3D 123Ans BExplanation :1Kolleru lake has the largest number of islands within Kolleru lake is formed between deltas of Godavari amp Krishna riversKolleru Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India located in state of Andhra Pradesh and formsthe largest shallow freshwater3 lake in Asia 15 kilometers away from the city of Eluru Kolleru is located between Krishna and Godavari deltas4 Kolleru spans into two districts – Krishna and West Godavari The lake is fed directly by water from the seasonal Budameru and Tammilerustreams and is connected to the Krishna and Godavari irrigation systems by over 67 major and minor irrigation canals This lake is a major tourist attraction Many birds migrate here in winter such as Siberian crane ibisand painted storks The lake was an important habitat for an estimated 20 million resident and migratorybirds including the grey or spot-billed pelican Pelecanus philippensis The lake was declared as a wildlife sanctuary in November 1999 under India’s Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 and designated a wetland of international importance in November 2002 under the international Ramsar Convention The wildlife sanctuary covers an area of 308 km2Egrets grey herons painted storks and black-headed ibises gathering in thousands at Kolleru Lake Andhra Pradesh IndiaKolleru Lake under Ramsar Convention allowing local communities Here: Vaddi Community to continue their occupation of culture fish and caught fish covers 90100 hectares 222600 acres and Kolleru Lake underWildlife Sanctuary covers 166000 acres 67200 ha2Pulicat lake : Pulicat Lagoon is the second largest brackish water lagoon in India after Chilika Lake Pulicat Lagoon is considered to be the second largest brackish water body in India measuring 759 km2 The Lagoon is one the three important wetlands to attract North-East Monsoon rain clouds during October to December season to Tamil Nadu The lagoon comprises the following regions which adds up 759 km2 according to Andhra Pradesh Forest Department: 1 Pulicat Lake Tamil Nadu-TN amp Andhra Pradesh-AP 2 Marshy/WetlandLand Region AP 3 Venadu Reserve Forest AP 4 Pernadu Reserve Forest AP The lagoon was cut across in the middle the Sriharikota Link Road which divided the water body into lake and marshy land The lake encompasses the Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary The barrier island of Sriharikota separates the lake from the Bay of Bengal and is home to the Satish Dhawan Space Centre1 Major part of the lake comes under Nellore district of Andhra pradesh3 Vembanad lake:Vembanad Vembanad Kayal or Vembanad Kol is the longest lake in India1 and the largest lake in the state of Kerala Spanning several districts in the state of Kerala it is known as Vembanadu Lake in Kottayam Punnamada Lake in Kuttanad and Kochi Lake in Kochi Several groups of small islands including Vypin Mulavukad Vallarpadam Willingdon Island are located in the Kochi Lake portion Kochi Port is built around the Willingdon Island and the Vallarpadam islandThe Nehru Trophy Boat Race is conducted in a portion of the lake High levels of pollution have been noticed at certain hotspots of the Vembanad backwaters Government of India has identified the Vembanad wetland under National Wetlands Conservation Programme4 Jai Samand Lake:Dhebar Lake also known as Jaisamand Lake is India’s second-largest artificial lake after Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar1 It is located in the Udaipur District of Rajasthan State in western India It has an area of 87 km2 34 sq mi when full and was created in the 17th century when Rana Jai Singh of Udaipur built a marble dam across the Gomati River It is about 450 km 280 mi from the district headquarters of Udaipur When first built it was the largest artificial lake in the world The surrounding Jaisamand Wildlife Sanctuary around Dhebar Lake can be reached by the state highway to Banswara from Udaipur It is about 270 km 168 mi from Parsad A village on National Highway No 8 Jaisamand Wildlife Sanctuary protects about 1620 square kilometres 16200 ha mostly teakforest on the shores of Dhebar Lake The lake has three islands measuring from 10 to 40 acres 40000 to 162000 m2 each The Dhebar Lake Marble Dam is 3000 m 9843 ft long and is a part of the Heritage Monuments of India The dam also has the Hawa Mahal Palace winter Capital of the erstwhile Maharanas of MewarFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -MAY 2018 Q370 With reference to the CLOUD ACT consider the following statements :1 It has been passed by the US Congress very recently to make artificial rain by spraying clouds with substances like Silver Iodide 2 US has enacted in 2018 by passing the Consolidated Appropriations ActSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns BCloud act – The Clarifying Lawful Overseas Use of Data CLOUD Act passed by the US Congress earlier this year seeks to de-monopolise control over data from US authorities The law will for the first time allow tech companies to share data directly with certain foreign governments This however requires an executive agreement between the US and the foreign country certifying that the state has robust privacy protections and respect for due process and the rule of law Before this Cloud Act an Indian officer investigating would have to raise a request for data to the US government where it is storedHow CLOUD act impacts law enforcement in India :- Timely access to electronic data for police is required to prevent mitigate or prosecute even a routine crime With the enactment of the CLOUD Act an Indian officer for the purposes of an investigation will no longer have to make a request to the US government but can approach the company directlyFRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS -AUGUST 2018 Q369 Which among the following is/are the expected benefits to a country by signing the pact of Duqm port in Oman 1 Port is located near the Persian Gulf through which half of the world’s oil tanker pass2 It has a special economic zone where 25 billion investments are expected to be made by the Indian companiesWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AIt has a special economic zone where 18 billion investments are expected to be made by the Indian companiesPort is located near the Persian Gulf through which half of the world’s oil tanker passIt is also near the Chabahar port of IranFRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS -AUGUST 2018 Q368 What is/are the consequence/ consequences of a country becoming the member of the ‘European Bank for Reconstruction amp Development’ 1 Membership would provide access to the technical amp financial assistance of the bank related to the development of the private sector2 Co-financing opportunities access to the international markets will be enhanced through the membershipWhich of the statements given above is/are correctA 1 onlyB 2 onlyC Both 1 amp 2D Neither 1 nor 2 Ans BMembership would provide access to the technical assistance amp sectoral knowledge of the bank related to the development of the private sectorCo-financing opportunities access to the international markets will be enhanced through the membershipExplanation:The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development EBRD is an international financial institution founded in 1991 As a multilateral developmental investment bank the EBRD uses investment as a tool to build market economies Initially focused on the countries of the former Eastern Bloc it expanded to support development in more than 30 countries from central Europe to central Asia Similar to other multilateral development banks the EBRD has members from all over the world North America Africa Asia and Australia see below with the biggest shareholder being the United States but only lends regionally in its countries of operations Headquartered in London the EBRD is owned by 69 countries and two EU institutions 69th being Indiarecently in July 2018 Despite its public sector shareholders it invests in private enterprises together with commercial partnersThe EBRD is not to be confused with the European Investment Bank EIB which is owned by EU member states and is used to support EU policy EBRD is also distinct from the Council of Europe Development Bank CEBFRAMED FROM INDIAN EXPRESS -AUGUST 2018 Q367 STARLINK refers to :A It is a research amp development project developed by Google X to provide internet access to rural amp remote areasB It is the solar powered drone launched by facebook to provide internet access to four billion people around the world C Any type of drone that can be controlled by the Microwave signals of high wavelengthD It is the planned constellation of satellites that would provide high speed global internet connectionAns DStarlink is a satellite constellation development project underway by SpaceX1 to develop a low-cost high-performance satellite bus and requisite customer ground transceivers to implement a new space-basedInternet communication system23 By 2017 SpaceX submitted regulatory filings to launch nearly 12000 satellites to orbit by the mid-2020s4SpaceX also plans to sell satellites that use a satellitebus that may be used for military5 scientific or exploratory purposes6 In November 2018 SpaceX received FCC approval to deploy 7518 broadband satellites in addition to the 4425 satellites that were approved in March 2018 Development began in 2015 and prototype test-flight satellites were launched on 22 February 2018Initial operation of the constellation could begin in 2020 with satellite deployment beginning mid 2019The SpaceX satellite development facility in Redmond Washington houses the research and development operations for the satellite Internet projectFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018 Q366 Which among the following sites have been identified for the development of Water Aerodromes 1 Wular lake2 Sabarmati river front3 Chilika lakeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 3C 2 amp 3D 123Ans CChilika lake IN Orissa Gujarat’s Sardar Sarovar Dam Sabarmati river front have been identified for the development of Water AerodromesFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018 Q365 Which among the following products have been classified into Minor Forest Products 1 Tamarind 2 Sandalwood3 Bamboo4 Cane5 Fuel amp TimberSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1345B 245C Only 2 amp 5D 134Ans DMajor Forest Produce and Minor Forest Products The Major Forest Products comprise Pulpwood SandalwoodSocial Forestry that incudes Fuel and Timber The Minor Forest Products include the items such as tamarind curry leaf Tendu Patta gallnut Cane Soapnut tree moss and now Bamboo alsoFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018 Q364 Consider the following :1 Magnetic Rheological Fluid Damper2 Macro encapsulation device for treatment of Diabetes3 Smartphone based Camera SensorWhich among the above projects have been developed under the Imprint-2 Initiative A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D Only 1Ans BMagnetic Rheological Fluid Damper Smartphone based Camera Sensor- are the projects of IMPRINT INITIATIVEFor details of the projects open the link : FROM THE HINDU -AUGUST 2018 Q363 Which among the following have been accorded Geographical Indication status 1 Blue pottery of Jaipur2 Tirupati ladoos3 Mahabaleshwar Strawberry4 Nagpur OrangeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 124B 2 amp 4C 234D 1234Ans DFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q362 With reference to the news what is Blockchain Bond A It is the new debt instrument issued by World Bank by using ledger technology B It is a type of bond purchased by buyers interested in earning a revenue stream from the British pound or sterlingC Republic of Seychelles has launched the Bond a novel financing initiative which taps into capital markets to fund ocean-related environmental projectsD It is the bond issued outside India but denominated in Indian Rupees rather than the local currencyAns AThe World Bank is turning to blockchain to help it raise moneyThe international lender is planning to issue what it says is the world’s first global blockchainbond a notable mainstream endorsement of the emerging technologyBlockchain is best known as the technology underpinning bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies It serves as a digital record of financial transactionsThe World Bank has hired Commonwealth Bank of Australia CBAUF to manage the bond which is expected to raise as much as 100 million Australian dollars 73 millionFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q361 Which of the following best describes the term “Mobilise Your City” sometimes seen in news A It is an initiative to support three Indian cities to reduce Green House Gas emissionsB It is a part of Swacch Bharat Mission to make Indian cities clean C It is the Heat Action Plan adopted in Climate Change Conference to keep global average temperature below 20 CD It is an initiative to support Indian cities to reduce atmospheric pollution as a part of health initiativeAns AIndia and France sign an implementation agreement on “MOBILISE YOUR CITY” MYC European Union agrees to Euro 35 million for investments and technical assistance within the Mobilise Your City MYC programme in India MYC aims at supporting three pilot cities viz Nagpur Kochi and Ahmedabad for reduction of Green House Gas GHG emissions related to urban transportFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q360 With reference to the PISA Programme For International Student Assessment consider the following statements :1 PISA test introduced in the year 2000 by UNICEF United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund 2 The test is carried out once in every two yearsWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DPISA test introduced in the year 2000 by OECDThe test is carried out once in every three yearsThe Programme for International Student Assessment PISA is a worldwide study by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development OECD in member and non-member nations intended to evaluate educational systems by measuring 15-year-old school pupils’ scholastic performance on mathematics science and reading It was first performed in 2000 and then repeated every three years Its aim is to provide comparable data with a view to enabling countries to improve their education policies and outcomes It measures problem solving and cognition The 2015 version of the test was published on 6 December 2016FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q359 With reference to O-Smart scheme consider the following statements :1 It is the Earth Ministry’s scheme to address Ocean development activities 2 The scheme covers 16 sub projects with an overall cost of Rs 1700 croresWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AThe scheme covers 16 sub projects with an overall cost of Rs 1623 croresFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q358 Which among the following is/are modified Operational Guidelines for Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana 1 Only Perennial horticulture crops are included on pilot basis under the ambit of PMFBY 2 Farmers will be paid 11 interest by insurance companies Which of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D-Farmers will be paid 12 interest by insurance companies-State Governments will have to pay 12 interest for delay in release of state share of subsidy-It includes Perennial horticulture crops on pilot basis under the ambit of PMFBY -It provides add on coverage for crop loss -Release of upfront premium subsidy FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q357 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan jyoti Bima Yojana consider the following statements :1 It is a life insurance scheme which includes age between 18 to 50 years2 The annual premium of Rs12 will be paid by the Union government 3 The benefit includes Rs 2 lakhs in case of death due to any causeWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A 1 amp 3B Only 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans BPradhan Mantri Jeevan jyoti Bima Yojana is a accident insurance scheme which includes age between 18 to 50 yearsPradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana is a life insurance which includes age between 18 to 70 yearsPradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana : The annual premium of Rs12 will be paid by the Union government Pradhan Mantri Jeevan jyoti Bima Yojana : The annual premium of Rs330 will be paid by the Union government FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q356 Which among the following are mandatory to mention on the label of the food items as per regulations of Food Safety amp Standards Regulations Act2018 1Trans fats2 Sugar 3 Salt4 Genetically Engineered Goods / ingredients derived from GMO5 Folic acidWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A 145B 1234C 123D 12345Ans BThe Food Safety and Standards Authority of India FSSAI on August 17 2018 constituted a group of experts from health and nutrition sector to look into the issue of food labellingThe expert panel will be headed by B Sesikeran former director of National Institute of Nutrition NIN and comprises Hemalatha and Dr Nikhil Tandon The panel will study in detail the concerns of the industry and make recommendations The announcement regarding the constitution of the Committee was made by FSSAI CEO Pawan Kumar Agarwal while addressing a national consultation on the draft regulation on food labelling organised by the CUTS InternationalAgarwal also made it clear that Food Safety and Standards Authority of India FSSAI will go ahead with the labelling norms even if there is no full consensus on the matter after the panel’s suggestionsIn April 2018 the FSSAI had come out with the draft of ‘Food Safety and Standards Labelling and Display Regulations 2018’ that propose mandatory red-label marking on packaged food products containing high levels of fat sugar and saltHowever for now the government has put on hold these draft regulations following the concerns raised by stakeholdersDraft provisions of Food Safety and Standards Labelling and Display Regulations 2018• The draft regulations suggest for mandatory declaration by packaged food manufacturers about nutritional information such as calories total fat trans fat sugar and salt per serve on the front of the pack• The draft pitches for a colour code proposes that the high fats such as sugar and salt trans-fat and sodium content should be coloured as ‘red’ if the value of energy from total sugar or fat is more than 10 percent of the total energy in the 100 grams or 100 ml of the product • The colour coding will make it easier for consumers to know about the nutritional value of food products and will help them make choices as per their requirements • It also makes mandatory to label food stuffs as ‘Contains GMO/Ingredients derived from GMO’ if the items contain 5 percent or more Genetically Engineered GE ingredients • The nutritional information should also be provided in the form of bar codeFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q355 Consider the following statements with reference to the Great Pacific Garbage Patch that sometimes seen in news :1 It is a gyre of marine debris particles in the central North Pacific Ocean2 It is located from 135°E to 155°WWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AThe Great Pacific garbage patch also described as the Pacific trash vortex is a gyre of marine debris particles in the central North Pacific Ocean It is located roughly from 135°W to 155°W and 35°N to 42°NThe collection of plastic floating trash halfway between Hawaii and California extends over an indeterminate area of widely varying range depending on the degree of plastic concentration used to define itThe patch is characterized by exceptionally high relative pelagic concentrations of plastic chemical sludge and other debris that have been trapped by the currents of the North Pacific Gyre3 Despite the common public image of islands offloating rubbish its low density 4 particles per cubic meter prevents detection by satellite imagery or even by casual boaters or divers in the area It consists primarily of an increase in suspended often microscopic particles in the upper water columnThe patch is not easily seen from the sky because the plastic is dispersed over a large area Researchers from The Ocean Cleanup project claimed that the patch covers 16 million square kilometers The plastic concentration is estimated to be up to 100 kilograms per square kilometer in the center going down to 10 kilograms per square kilometer in the outer parts of the patch An estimated 80000 metric tons of plastic inhabit the patch totaling 18 trillion pieces 92 of the mass in the patch comes from objects larger than 05 centimetersResearch indicates that the patch is rapidly accumulatingA similar patch of floating plastic debris is found in the Atlantic Ocean called the North Atlantic garbage patchFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q354 Consider the following statements with reference to the Heritage Irrigation Structures that sometimes seen in news :1 These structures have been created to ease irrigation by creating partition between the acidic amp alkaline soil2 This scheme has excluded old operational irrigation structures Which of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DAt the 63rd meeting of International Executive Council IEC held at Adelaide Australia on 28 June 2012 President Gao Zhanyi suggested that a process for recognition of the historical irrigation structures on the lines of World Heritage Sites as recognized by UNESCO shall be initiated Accordingly a Task Team comprising of the following members was set up to work out objectives guidelines and procedures to select the historical irrigation structures The Scheme was discussed during the meeting of WG-HIST at 65th IEC meeting The members suggested changes in the scope of the Scheme The present Scheme has been revised and updated to include both the old operational irrigation structures as well as structures that have primarily archival value It is proposed that a historical irrigation and/or drainage structure fulfilling the criterion laid down in this document shall be recognized as “Heritage Irrigation Structure” HIS The nomination forms received by 30 June every year will be processed together and presented to the following Executive Council meeting after due processing Nominations are invited from ICID National Committees for selection of “World Heritage Irrigation Structures” WHIS thatincludes both old operational irrigation structures as well as those having an archival value A Task Team is set up every year to select historical drainage/drainage structures as received from various National Committees NCs to give recognition to the historical irrigation structures on the lines of World Heritage Sites as recognized by UNESCO National Committee can nominate more than one structure using separate nomination form for each Associated Members and non-member countries can nominate their structures through the neighboring active national committees or by submitting directly to the ICID Central OfficeFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q353 Which of the following best describes “MOVE” sometimes seen in news A It is the Global Mobility Summit organized by Niti Ayog to make Indian cities pollution freeB It is an Intergovernmental agreement on the National Redress Scheme for Institutional Child Sexual Abuse C It is the Global Mobility Summit organized by UNFCCC between the Commonwealth and the States on environment issuesD It is an inter governmental agreement for the promotion of political amp economic relations with the ASEANAns ATo showcase innovation and build a platform to shape the future of mobility NITI Aayog is proud to host the first Move Summit 2018 In New Delhi on 7th and 8th September 2018 stakeholders from across the sectors of mobility and transportation will gather to co-create a public interest framework to revolutionize transport Together government industry academia civil society and media will set the base for a transport system which is safe clean shared and connected and affordable accessible and inclusiveThe Move Summit will address these challenges through two major channels:THE CORE SUMMIT AND PARALLEL EVENTS It will help leverage a number of unique features of India’s mobility ecosystem:a Tremendous potential for a fundamental shiftb Low lock-in-effectc Scale and size d Frugal innovation ande Globally-recognized technological prowessThe Move Summit will seek to integrate India’s efforts around sustainable development urbanization clean energy and more through the unique lens of mobilityFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q352 With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana consider the following statements :1 Institutional treatment is the part of this Scheme2 It will cover over 10 crore people for secondary amp tertiary care hospitalization 3 Members of the family should not be more than 5 to be eligible for the scheme Which of the statements given above is/are correct A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans B1st statement : Institution treatment means a hospital nursing facility or other It is a fabricated statement3rd statement : It is also wrong It is not the feature of this schemePrime Minister Narendra Modi launched ambitious Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana PMJAY under Ayushman Bharat umbrella at Ranchi Jharkhand The scheme aims to provide annual health insurance cover of Rs 5 lakh to 1074 crore beneficiary families ie over 50 crore beneficiaries across India It is touted as world’s largest healthcare scheme that will serve beneficiary population that equals 27-28 European countries and almost equal to population of Canada Mexico and US put together The scheme will become operational from September 25 2018 ie on birth anniversary of Deendayal Upadhyay FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -JUNE 2018 Q351 Which of the following best describes “RIMPAC” sometimes seen in news A It is a specialised agency of the United Nations responsible for regulating shippingB It is the world’s largest military exercise between United States amp South Korea C It is a naval ship that is built and primarily intended for naval warfareD It is the world’s largest international maritime warfare exercise administered by the United States Navy’s pacific fleetAns DRIMPAC the Rim of the Pacific Exercise is the world’s largest international maritime warfare exercise RIMPAC is held bienniallyduring June and July of even-numbered years from Honolulu Hawaii It is hosted and administered by the United States Navy’s Pacific Fleet headquartered at Pearl Harbor in conjunction with the Marine Corps the Coast Guard and Hawaii National Guard forces under the control of the Governor of Hawaii The US invites military forces from the Pacific Rim and beyond to participate With RIMPAC the United States Pacific Command seeks to enhance interoperability among Pacific Rim armed forces ostensibly as a means of promoting stability in the region to the benefit of all participating nations Described by the US Navy as a unique training opportunity that helps participants foster and sustain the cooperative relationships that are critical to ensuring the safety of sea lanes and security on the world’s oceansRIMPAC 2018On 23 May 2018 the Pentagon announced that it had disinvited China because of recent militarization of islands in the South China Sea after China had announced in January that it had been invitedThe PRC has previously attended RIMPAC 2014 amp 2016On 30 May 2018 the US Navy announced that the following navies would take part in the exercise FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -JUNE 2018 Q350 With reference to the “Polargap Project” consider the following statements :1 It is an international mission to capture data about the Earth’s electrical amp magnetic field2 This project is largely funded by the World bankWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DPolarGAP is an ambitious international mission to capture new and critical data about the Earth’s global gravity field Innovative radar systems and Lidar technologies will also be deployed from Twin Otter aircraft to fill the ‘data gap’ in measurements of surface elevation over the South Pole region south of 835°Two earth observing satellite missions GOCE and CryoSat 2 mounted by the European Space Agency ESA revolutionised scientists’ ability to ‘map’ the Earth’s global gravity field and monitor how Earth’s ice fields are responding to global change However because GOCE’s orbit did not cross the Poles there is a data gap at the South PoleThe PolarGAP project will collect new gravity data and combine them with datasets from other Antarctic missions to build the first accurately constrained global gravity model This is essential as global gravity data provide unique informationon mass distribution and transport in the Earth System linked to processes and changes in the Solid Earth hydrology cryosphere oceans and atmosphere Key applications of gravity data include geodetic studies levelling and mapping navigation GPS/GLONASS and satellite orbit planningFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -JULY 2018 Q349 Recently environment minister inaugurates advanced system of air quality “SAFAR” With reference to this project consider the following statements :1 It will monitor all the weather parameters like temperature wind speed amp wind direction 2 The system will also monitor existence of Benzene Methane amp TolueneWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AScienceamp Technology Earth Sciences Environment Forest amp Climate Change Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan unveiled a state-of-the-art Air Quality and Weather Forecast System– SAFAR System of Air Quality and Weather Forecastingat ChandniChowkin Delhi today The giant true colour LED display gives out real-time air quality index on 24×7 basis with colour coding alongwith 72-hour advance forecastThe system first of its kind in the country was developed indigenously in record time by Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology Pune and operationalized by India Meteorological Department IMDThe minister said based on the Air Quality Index on a particular day Health advisory and related precaution will be notified to prepare citizens well in advance Dr Harsh Vardhan further added that in addition to monitoring and forecasting of regular air quality and weather parameters the ChandniChowk air quality station will also measure sun’s UV-Index and will provide measurement of online automatic ultrafine particles PM1 and Mercury both of which have direct relevance to human health Based on UVI skin advisories will be issued on display“Our mission model project SAFAR is implemented in four cities of India – Delhi Pune Mumbai and Ahmedabad as an operational service Accordingto a preliminary economic assessment of the benefits of the system if 5 of people suffering from air-pollution related diseases take advantage of the advisories and precautionsin Delhi alone it would result in a saving of nearly Rs 2500 crores in terms of health-related cost benefit” said Dr Harsh Vardhan addressing a large gathering at Town Hall in ChandniChowkThe system will be an integral part of India’s first Air Quality Early Warning System operational in Delhi and will strengthen the existing air quality network of SAFAR Central Pollution Control Board and Delhi Pollution Control CommitteeSAFAR will accelerate public awareness and preparedness of air pollution and weather extremes It will also lead to better understanding of linkages among emissions weather pollution and climate It will monitor all weather parameters like temperature rainfall humidity wind speed and wind directionIn addition to regular air quality parameters like PM25 PM10 Sulfur Dioxide Ozone Nitrogen Oxides Carbon Monoxide the system will also monitor the existence of Benzene Toluene and XyleneBesides health SAFAR system would benefit cost savings to several other sectors like agriculture aviation infrastructure disaster management skill tourism and many others which directly or indirectly get affected by air quality and weather FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q348 Which of the following best describes “Global Green Bond Partnership” sometimes seen in news A This partnership will spread catchment area over 689 sq km to provide water for irrigation to cities states regionsB These bonds are issued by world bank in partnership with the government bodies private organisations or individual scientists to increase forest cover C This partnership will support efforts of cities states regions corporations private companies to accelerate issuance of green bondsD These bonds are issued by world bank in partnership with the government bodies private organisations or individual scientists to provide precious water for paddy cropsAns CThe Global Green Bond Partnership GGBP launched at the Global Climate Action Summit GCAS This new partnership will support efforts of sub-national entities such as cities states and regions corporations and private companies and financial institutions to accelerate the issuance of green bondsThe founding members of the Global Green Bond Partnership GGBP include the World Bank IFC – a member of the World Bank Group Amundi European Investment Bank Climate Bonds Initiative Ceres ICLEI – Local Governments for Sustainability Global Covenant of Mayors for Climate amp Energy GCoM and the Low Emissions Development Strategies Global Partnership LEDS GPFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q347 With reference to the Price Deficiency Payment Scheme consider the following statements :1 It is proposed to cover all the oil seeds for which minimum support price is notified2 It does not involve any physical procurement of the crops3 All the payments will be done directly into registered bank account of the farmer Which of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 2B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans DThe Niti Aayog has released a three-year agenda for the Centre Of the several things it has touched upon one is agriculture with a focus on doubling farmers’ income The think-tank has recommended reforms in the APMC Act and tenancy laws and tweaks to the eNAM electronic National Agriculture Market It has also suggested ‘Price Deficiency Payment’ system to address the gaps in Minimum Support Price MSP based procurement of cropsWhat is itUnder Price Deficiency Payment farmers are proposed to be compensated for the difference between the government-announced MSPs for select crops and their actual market prices For crops such as rice and wheat where it is effective now MSP announcements will continue For other targeted crops price deficiency payments will be made However it has to be noted that there may be a cap on the extent to which the Centre will bridge the gap between MSP and market priceNiti Aayog has said that the farmer may be entitled to the difference up to say 10 per cent To avail this benefit eachfarmer would have to register with the nearest APMC mandi and report the total area sown The subsidy may be paid via Direct Benefit Transfer DBT into the farmer’s Aadhaar-linked bank accountWhy is it importantThe key benefit from the price deficiency payment is that it will reduce the need for the government to actually procure food crops transport and store them and then dispose of them under PDS The difference between the support and market prices can instead simply be paid in cash to the farmer Price deficiency payment can also keep India’s bill on food subsidies under check believes Niti Aayog India’s food subsidy schemes have frequently come under the WTO scanner Even in the meeting held in March this year there were questions raised on the minimum support price programmes for wheat sugarcane and pulses by the US EU and AustraliaThese countries see India’s procurement subsidies as trade-distorting In recent years the government has been seeing the accumulation of large food grain stocks in its godowns over and above the buffer requirement This entails storage and wastage costs that add on to the subsidy billFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q346 Recently Government has hiked customs duties of several items to curb imports of non-essential goods Which among the following items are exempted under the custom duty 1 E-cigarettes2 Aviation turbine fuel3 Decorative sheets4 Beeds amp BanglesWhich of the options given above is/are correct A 234B Only 1C 1 amp 3D Only 4Ans BCustom DutySno Item 1 Air Conditioner 2 Refrigerators3 Washing Machines Less than 10kg 4 Compressor for ACs Refrigerators 5 Speakers 6 Footwear 7 Radial car tyres 8 Non-industrial diamonds 9 Diamonds semi-processed 10 Lab grown diamonds 11 Cut polished coloured gem stones 12 Jewellery- precious metal or metal clad with precious metal 13 Goldsmith or Silversmith wares – precious metal or metal clad with precious metal 14 Shower bath bath sink wash basin of plastic 15 Plastic items- boxes case containers bottles insulated ware 16 Kitchenware tableware household items of plastic 17 Other plastic items- office stationary fitting for furniture decorative sheets statuettes beads and bangles18 Trunks suitcases brief cases travel bags and other bags 19 Aviation turbine fuel FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q345 With reference to the Price Support scheme consider the following statements :1 Physical procurement of the oilseeds pulses amp Copra will be done by NAFED amp Food Corporation of India2 Procurement expenditure amp losses due to procurement will be borne by the State governmentWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAnsAProcurement expenditure amp losses due to procurement will be borne by the Union government as per normsPhysical procurement of the oilseeds pulses amp Copra will be done by Central Nodal agencies with the proactive role of the State governments FRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q344 India has recently signed COMCASA Agreement What is/are the consequence/consequences for India by signing the agreement 1 It allows the India to transfer electronic systems amp ensure secrecy of its C4ISR systems2 By signing the agreement India would have to buy American Military equipmentWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D-It allows the US to transfer high tech electronic systems amp ensure secrecy of its C4ISR Command Control Communications Computers Intelligence Surveillance amp Reconnaissance systems-By signing the agreement It is not mean that India would have to necessarily buy American Military equipmentExplanation :It is one of the three foundational defence pacts that needs to be signed by a country in order to obtain high-tech military hardware from the US Before COMCASA India had signed only one of these agreements – Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement LEMOA – in 2016 The two countries are yet to begin talks on the third agreement – Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement for Geo-spatial Cooperation BECA2 The agreement will give Indian military access to function on high-end secured and encrypted communication equipment which are installed on American platforms obtained by Indian Armed Forces These platforms include C-130 J C-17 P-8I aircraft and Apache and Chinook helicopters3 The act is usually known as the Communication and Information on Security Memorandum of Agreement CISMOA But it was changed to COMCASA to signify its India-specific alterations4 It will also provide a legal framework for the transfer of encrypted communication security equipment from the US to India It is believed to be safer and more secure than the system that India uses right now “Signing of Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement COMCASA will enable India to access advanced technologies from USA” Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman said while addressing the media5 The agreement was pending for almost ten years One of the major reasons for this was the fear that India may compromise its operational independence Critics had also pointed out that the agreement could jeopardise India’s established military ties with Russia and access to their weapons systemsThe agreement is also of political significance with the general elections scheduled to take place next year In 2016 the BJP government had to face a lot of criticism from the opposition parties for signing LEMOAThese agreements and Donald Trump administration’s decision to give India STA-1 status Strategic Trade Authorization-1 shows the country’s importance in the US strategic calculus“We’ll be meeting PM Modi on how to advance relationship in the new era of growth under his leadership and President Trump We had many productive and forward thinking conversations on our bilateral relationship and our shared future” Pompeo said after ‘22’ talksFRAMED FROM THE HINDU -SEPTEMBER 2018 Q343 Currently India is a member of which among the following organizations / groups 1 Missile Technology Control Regime2 Australia Group3 Wassenaar Arrangement4 Nuclear Suppler GroupWhich of the statements given above is/are correct A Only 2 amp 3B 234C Only 1 amp 2D 123Ans DSome countries are opposing the Indian entry into NSG because India has not signed the Non-Proliferation Treaty NPTQ342 With respect to the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana which among the following is NOT correctA It is a social welfare scheme to provide LPG connections in BPL householdsB The scheme was launched in the year 2015C The Government has set a target of 5 crores LPG connections under the YojanaD The objective of the scheme is to safeguard the health of women and children by providing them with clean cooking fuelAns B- The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana PMUY is a welfare program of the government of India launched by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2016The stated objective of the program is providing 50000000 LPG connections to women from families below the poverty lineFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ341 Which among the following is/are correctly matched 1 COP 11 : Minimata convention on mercury2 COP 3 : Kyoto protocol on climate change3 COP 1 : Montreal ProtocolSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 3C 2 amp 3D Only 2Ans BCOP-4 conference in Buenos COP 3 : Kyoto protocol on climate changegtCOP 11 : Montreal It took place between 28 November and 9 December 2005 in Montreal Quebec Canada It was the first Meeting of the Parties CMP 1 to the Kyoto Protocol since their initial meeting in Kyoto in 1997 It was one of the largest intergovernmental conferences on climate change ever gtCOP1 : Minimata convention on mercuryFRAMED FROM MAP SECTION Q340 Consider the following :1 Rajpipla range : Rajasthan2 Suket hills : Himachal Pradesh3 Kali river : DelhiSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 123D 2 amp 3Ans BRajpipla range : GujaratKali river : Source : Doon valley in UttarakhandFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q339 Which of the following is/are true with respect to the petroleum Panchayat yojna 1 It has replaced Pradhan Mantri Ujwal Yojana to deal with issue of safe use of LPG2 It was launched in 20153 Availability of refill cylinders is one of the key feature of this schemeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D Only 3Ans DIt was launched in 23rd September 2017It is backup scheme to existing Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana LPG Panchayat will serve as an interactive platform between those who received LPG cylinders under PMUY One panchayat will have around 100 LPG customers of nearby areas The panchayats discuss issues such as safe practices quality of service provided by distributors and availability of refill cylindersFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q338 Which among the following species is/are the examples of the Waterfowl 1 Wood Sandpiper2 Little cormorant3 Painted StorkSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B Only 3C 1 amp 2D 123Ans D The most common waterfowl are :Gadwall shoveler common teal cotton teal tufted duck knob-billed duck little cormorant great cormorant Indian shag ruff painted stork white spoonbill Asian open-billed stork oriental ibis darter common sandpiper wood sandpiper and green sandpiper The sarus crane with its spectacular courtship dance is also found hereFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q337 Which among the following statements is/are true with respect to the Special Drawing Rights 1 These are the foreign-exchange reserve assets defined and maintained by the World Bank 2 Private parties are restricted to hold or use them3 South African Rand amp British pound have been added to the XDR basket effectively from October 1 2016Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 3C 2 amp 3D Only 2Ans DSpecial drawing rights ISO 4217 currency code XDR1 also abbreviated SDR are supplementary foreign-exchange reserve assets defined and maintained by the International Monetary Fund IMF The XDR is the unit of account for the IMF and is not a currency per se2 XDRs instead represent a claim to currency held by IMF member countries for which they may be exchanged3 The XDR was created in 1969 to supplement a shortfall of preferred foreign-exchange reserve assets namely gold and the US dollar3XDRs are allocated to countries by the IMF3 Private parties do not hold or use them4 The amount of XDRs in existence was around XDR 214 billion in August 2009 During the global financial crisis of 2009 an additional XDR 1826 billion were allocated to provide liquidity to the global economic system and supplement member countries’ official reserves By October 2014 the amount of XDRs in existence was XDR 204 billion5The value of the XDR is based on a basket of key international currencies reviewed by IMF every five years3 The weights assigned to each currency in the XDR basket are adjusted to take into account their current prominence in terms of international trade and national foreign exchange reserves3 In the review conducted in November 2015 the IMF decided that the Renminbi Chinese yuan would be added to the basket effective October 1 20166 From that date the XDR basket now consists of the following five currencies: US dollar 4173 Euro 3093 Renminbi Chinese yuan 1092 Japanese yen 833 British pound 809FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q336 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana 1 it is an annual scholarships to children of Standard VI to IX having good academic records only2 Philately as a hobby is an important component of this scheme3 Children must be between 10 to 18 years of age to be eligible for this schemeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B Only 3C 1 amp 2D Only 2Ans DDeen Dayal Sparsh YojanaMinister of Communications Shri Manoj Sinha launched a Pan India scholarship program for school children called Deen Dayal SPARSH Yojana to increase the reach of Philately Under the scheme of SPARSH Scholarship for Promotion of Aptitude amp Research in Stamps as a Hobby it is proposed to award annual scholarships to children of Standard VI to IX having good academic record and also pursuing Philately as a hobby through a competitive selection process in all postal circles Briefing the media after the launch of the scheme Shri Sinha said that under the scheme it is proposed to award 920 scholarships to students pursuing Philately as a hobby Every Postal Circle will select a maximum of 40 scholarships representing 10 students each from Standard VI VII VIII amp IX The amount of Scholarship will be Rs 6000/- per annum Rs 500/- per monthPhilately is the hobby of collection and study of Postage stampsFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q335 Which among the following is/are the cryptocurrencies 1 Litecoin2 Bitcoin3 NamecoinSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 1 amp 2D 123Ans Dcryptocurrencies such as Litecoin Namecoin and PPCoinThe first cryptocurrency to capture the public imagination was Bitcoin which was launched in 2009 by an individual or group known under the pseudonym Satoshi Nakamoto As of September 2015 there were over 146 million bitcoins in circulation with a total market value of 34 billion Bitcoin’s success has spawned a number of competing cryptocurrencies such as Litecoin Namecoin and PPCoinCryptocurrencies make it easier to transfer funds between two parties in a transaction these transfers are facilitated through the use of public and private keys for security purposesThese fund transfers are done with minimal processing fees allowing users to avoid the steep fees charged by most banks and financial institutions for wire transfersFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q334 With reference to the news what are Bug Zappers A It is is a bio-remediation technique to get rid of oil spillB These are the fluorescent traps to eliminate bugs amp small insectsC These are the tools or methods to reduce the greenhouse gases D These are the Ultraviolet traps to eliminate various small flying insectsAns DUltraviolet traps called bug zappers are used to eliminate various small flying insects They are attracted to the UV and are killed using an electric shock or trapped once they come into contact with the device FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q333 Which among the following are the migratory wetland species 1 White-bellied Heron2 Siberian Crane3 Red-headed Vulture4 Spoon-billed SandpiperSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 4B 2 amp 3C 1 amp 2D 2 amp 4Ans DMigratory wetland species: Baer’s Pochard Siberian Crane and Spoon-billed Sandpiper Non-migratory wetland species: White-bellied Heron Grassland species:Bengal Florican Great Indian Bustard Jerdon’s Courser and Sociable Lapwing Forest species:Forest Owlet Scavengers: Indian Vulture Red-headed Vulture White-backed Vulture and Slender-billed Vulture Himalayan Quail and Pink-headed Duck are now considered Extinct for all practical purposesFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q332 With reference to the CITES what are Appendix II species A species that are listed after one member country has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling trade in a speciesB species that are threatened with extinction and are or may be affected by tradeC species that are not necessarily threatened with extinction but may become so unless trade in specimens of such speciesD Species that are preserved under the biosphere reserves to prevent their extinctionAns CAppendix I : species that are threatened with extinction and are or may be affected by tradeAppendix II : species that are not necessarily threatened with extinction but may become so unless trade in specimens of such speciesAppendix III : species that are listed after one member country has asked other CITES Parties for assistance in controlling trade in a speciesFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q331 What does Hedge Fund means A Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industriesB Open ended funds that pools capital from accredited individuals or institutional investorsC Start-up capital provided to new entrepreneursD Fund created by the Government of India for enhancing infrastructure financing in the countryAns BHedge Funds :A hedge fund is an investment fund that pools capital from accredited individuals or institutional investors and invests in a variety of assets often with complex portfolio-construction and risk-management techniquesIt is administered by a professional investment management firm and often structured as a limited partnership limited liability company or similar vehicleHedge funds are generally distinct from mutual funds as their use of leverage is not capped by regulators and distinct from private equity funds as the majority of hedge funds invest in relatively liquid assetsHedge funds are made available only to certain sophisticated or accredited investors and cannot be offered or sold to the general publicHedge funds are almost always open-ended and allow additions or withdrawals by their investors generally on a monthly or quarterly basis1 The value of an investor’s holding is directly related to the fund net asset valueFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q330 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Vernacular Press Act 1 The Act provided for submitting to police all the proof sheets of contents of papers before publication2 Final decision on the seditious news was to be determined by the Judiciary Select the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns AVernacular press act:It was enacted to curtail the freedom of the Indian press and prevent the expression of criticism toward British policies—notably the opposition that had grown with the outset of the Second Anglo-Afghan War 1878–80The act was proposed by Lord Lytton then Viceroy of India and was unanimously passed by the Viceroy’s Council on March 14 1878 The act excluded English-language publications as it was meant to control seditious writing in ‘publications in Oriental languages’ everywhere in the country except for the SouthLord Wellesley regulated the press again in 1799 according to which press had to show and get approval of the government before the publication of any manuscript including advertisement During the Indian Rebellion of 1857 the Gagging Act” had been passed by Lord Canning which sought to regulate the establishment of printing presses and to restrain the mad of printed mater All presses had to have a license from the government with distinction between publications in English and other regional languages The Act also held that no printed material shall impugn the motives of the British Raj tending to bring it hatred and contempt and exciting unlawful resistance to its ordersAt the time the Vernacular Press Act was passed there were thirty five vernacular papers in Bengal including the Amrita Bazar Patrika the editor of which was one Sisir Kumar GhoseThe Vernacular Press Act stated that any magistrate or Commissioner of Police had the authority to call upon any printer or publisher of a newspaper to enter into a bond undertaking not to print a certain kind of material and could confiscate any printed material it deemed objectionable The Act provided for submitting to police all the proof sheets of contents of papers before publication What was seditious news was to be determined by the police and not by the judiciaryFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q329 Who among the following is/are associated with the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha 1 G SubramaniaIyer2 Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi3 P AnandacharluSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 1 amp 2Ans BPoona Sarvajanik Sabha:It was a sociopolitical organisation in British India which started with the aim of working as a mediating body between the government and people of India and to popularise the peasants’ legal rights1 2 It started as an elected body of 95 members elected by 6000 persons on April 2 1870The Pune Sarvajanik Sabha provided many of the prominent leaders of national stature to the Indian freedom struggle including Bal Gangadhar Tilak It was formed in 1870 by S H Chiplunkar Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi Mahadev Govind Ranade et alMany eminent personalities such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak Gopal Hari Deshmukh Maharshi Annasaheb Patwardhan5 etc served as the Presidents of the organizationMadras Mahajan Sabha:The first organisation in the Madras Presidency to agitate for the rights of Indians was the Madras Native Association which was established by publicist GazuluLakshminarasu Chetty in 1849 This organisation did not survive for long and was eventually disbandedIn May 1884 M Veeraraghavachariar G SubramaniaIyer and P Anandacharlu established the Madras Mahajana SabhaFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q328 Consider the following statements :1 Deposition of iron-rich dust into ocean waters enhances carbon sequestration2 Biochar is added to a landfill or used as a soil improver to create terra preta3 Harvesting of Seeweed is done to generate electricity or as a replacement for natural gasSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans DCarbon SequestrationCarbon sequestration is the process involved in carbon capture and the long-term storage of atmospheric carbon dioxide1 Carbon sequestration involves long-term storage of carbon dioxide or other forms of carbon to mitigate or defer global warming It has been proposed as a way to slow the atmospheric and marine accumulation of greenhouse gases which are released by burning fossil fuels artificial capture and sequestration of industrially produced CO2 using subsurface saline aquifers reservoirs ocean water aging oil fields or other carbon sinksCarbon dioxide may be captured as a pure by-product in processes related to petroleum refining or from flue gases from power generation5 CO2 sequestration includes the storage part of carbon capture and storage which refers to large-scale artificial capture and sequestration of industrially produced CO2 using subsurface saline aquifers reservoirs ocean water aging oil fields or other carbon sinksBiosequestration or carbon sequestration through biological processes affects the global carbon cycle Examples include major climatic fluctuations such as the Azolla event which created the current Arctic climate Such processes created fossil fuels as well as clathrate and limestone By manipulating such processes geoengineers seek to enhance sequestrationPeat bogs are a very important carbon store Wetland soil is an important carbon sink 145 of the world’s soil carbon is found in wetlands while only 6 of the world’s land is composed of wetlandsOcean iron fertilization is an example of such a geoengineering technique23 Iron fertilization24 attempts to encourage phytoplankton growth which removes carbon from the atmosphere for at least a period of timeNatural iron fertilisation events eg deposition of iron-rich dust into ocean waters can enhance carbon sequestration The iron rich feces causes phytoplankton to grow and take up more carbon from the atmosphereWhen the phytoplankton dies some of it sinks to the deep ocean and takes the atmospheric carbon with it By reducing the abundance of sperm whales in the Southern Ocean whaling has resulted in an extra 200000 tonnes of carbon remaining in the atmosphere each year’Seaweed grows very fast and can theoretically be harvested and processed to generate biomethane via Anaerobic Digestion to generate electricity via Cogeneration/CHP or as a replacement for natural gas Ideal species for such farming and conversion include Laminaria digitata Fucus serratus and Saccharina latissimaBio-energy with carbon capture and storage BECCS‘BECCS refers to biomass in power stations and boilers that use carbon capture and storageBiochar is charcoal created by pyrolysis of biomass waste The resulting material is added to a landfill or used as a soil improver to create terra pretaFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q327 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the CITES 1 CITES is the conservation agreement with the largest membership with 183 Parties2 It is legally binding on the PartiesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CCITES the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora is an international agreement between governments Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survivalIt was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members of IUCNIt provides a framework to be respected by each Party which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national levelFor many years CITES has been among the conservation agreements with the largest membership with now 183 PartiesCITES is legally binding on the PartiesFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q326 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Bronze icon of Nataraja 1 The classical form of the depiction appears in stone reliefs by around the 6th-century2 Torso movements are visible as the most common form of Shiva’s dance 3 It typically shows Shiva dancing holding Agni fire in his left back hand the front hand in gajahasta or dandahasta mudraSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 3B 2 amp 3C Only 1D 1 amp 3Ans DBronze icon of NatarajaAffiliation Shiva SymbolsAgni TextsAnshumadbhed agamaUttarakamika agamaThe classical form of the depiction appears in stone reliefs as at the Ellora Caves and the Badami Caves by around the 6th-century45 Around the 10th century it emerged in Tamil Nadu in its mature and best-known expression in Chola bronzes of various heights typically less than four feet6 some over7 The Nataraja reliefs have been identified in historic artwork from many parts of South Asia in southeast Asia such as in Bali Cambodia and in central AsiaIt typically shows Shiva dancing in one of the Natya Shastra poses holding Agni fire in his left back hand the front hand in gajahasta or dandahasta mudra the front right hand with a wrapped snake that is in abhaya fear not mudra while pointing to a Sutratext and the back hand holding a musical instrument usually a damaru6 His body fingers ankles neck face head ear lobes and dress are shown decorated with symbolic items which vary with historic period and region111 He is surrounded by a ring of flames standing on a lotus pedestal lifting his left leg or in rare cases the right leg and balancing over a demon shown as a dwarf Apasmara2 or Muyalaka who symbolizes ignoranceThe dance of Shiva in Tillai the traditional name for Chidambaram forms the motif for all the depictions of Shiva as Nataraja He is also known as Sabesan which splits as Sabayil aadum eesan in Tamil which means The Lord who dances on the dais The two most common forms of Shiva’s dance are the Lasya the gentle form of dance associated with the creation of the world and the Tandava the violent and dangerous dance associated with the destruction of weary worldviews – weary perspectives and lifestyles• The arch of fire emerges from two makara on each end which are water creatures of water and part of Hindu mythologies • • The upper right hand holds a small drum shaped like an hourglass that is called a ḍamaru in Sanskrit2728 A specific hand gesture mudra called ḍamaru-hasta Sanskrit for ḍamaru-hand is used to hold the drum• • His legs are bent which suggests an energetic dance• The second left hand points towards the raised foot which suggests the viewer to be active and dance despite the circumstances or alternatively as a sign of upliftment and liberation• • The face shows two eyes plus a slightly open third on the forehead which symbolize the triune in Shaivism The Asanapat inscription also mentions a Shiva temple in the Saivacaryas kingdomStone reliefs depicting the classical form of Nataraja are found in numerous cave temples of India such as the Ellora Caves Maharashtra the Elephanta Caves and the Badami Caves Karnataka by around the 6th-centuryNataraja is celebrated in 108 poses of Bharatanatyam with Sanskrit inscriptions from Natya Shastra at the Nataraja temple in Chidambaram Tamil Nadu IndiaFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q325 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana 1 It is a Pension Scheme for the senior citizens aged 70 years and above2 The scheme is exempted from Service Tax/ GST3 On Premature exit 100 of the Purchase Price shall be refundedSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D Only 3Ans BPradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana PMVVY is a Pension Scheme announced by the Government of India exclusively for the senior citizens aged 60 years and above which is available from 4th May 2017 to 3rd May 2018Following are the major benefits under the Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana PMVVY:• Scheme provides an assured return of 8 pa payable monthly equivalent to 830 pa effective for 10 years• Pension is payable at the end of each period during the policy term of 10 years as per the frequency of monthly/ quarterly/ half-yearly/ yearly as chosen by the pensioner at the time of purchase• The scheme is exempted from Service Tax/ GST• On survival of the pensioner to the end of the policy term of 10 years Purchase price along with final pension installment shall be payable• Loan upto 75 of Purchase Price shall be allowed after 3 policy years to meet the liquidity needs Loan interest shall be recovered from the pension installments and loan to be recovered from claim proceeds• The scheme also allows for premature exit for the treatment of any critical/ terminal illness of self or spouse On such premature exit 98 of the Purchase Price shall be refunded• On death of the pensioner during the policy term of 10 years the Purchase Price shall be paid to the beneficiary• The ceiling of maximum pension is for a family as a whole the family will comprise of pensioner his/her spouse and dependants• The shortfall owing to the difference between the interest guaranteed and the actual interest earned and the expenses relating to administration shall be subsidized by the Government of India and reimbursed to the CorporationEligibility Conditions and Other Restrictions1 Minimum Entry Age: 60 years completed2 Maximum Entry Age: No limit3 Policy Term : 10 years4 Minimum Pension: Rs 1000/- per monthRs 3000/- per quarterRs6000/- per half-yearRs12000/- per year5 Maximum Pension: Rs 5000/- per monthRs 15000/- per quarterRs 30000/- per half-yearRs 60000/- per yearThe modes of pension payment are monthly quarterly half-yearly amp yearly The pension payment shall be through NEFT or Aadhaar Enabled Payment SystemThe first instalment of pension shall be paid after 1 year 6 months 3 months or 1 month from the date of purchase of the same depending on the mode of pension payment ie yearly half-yearly quarterly or monthly respectivelyFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ324 With reference to the incarnation of the Buddhas what does Ruru Jataka signifies A It is the tale of the three friends who lived in a forest: an antelope a woodpecker and a tortoiseB It is the story of The dumb Prince that is also known as Muga Pakaya JatakaC In this jataka tale the Buddha in a previous incarnation as a monkey king self-sacrifyinly offers his own body as a bridge by which his fellow monkeys can escape from a human king who is attacking themD is the story of how a past incarnation of the Buddha incarnated as a golden deer rescues a merchant from drowning in the riverAns DMahakapi Jataka : In this jataka tale the Buddha in a previous incarnation as a monkey king self-sacrifyinly offers his own body as a bridge by which his fellow monkeys can escape from a human king who is attacking them Ruru Jataka :The Ruru Jataka is the story of how a past incarnation of the Buddha incarnated as a golden deer rescues a merchant from drowning in the river bottom of medallionKurunga Miga Jataka :This story is about three friends who lived in a forest: an antelope a woodpecker and a tortoise Muga Pakaya Jataka/ Mugapakkha Jataka/ Temiya Jataka : This is the story of The dumb PrinceFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ323 Which among the following is/are true with respect to the GSF certification Gold standard foundation certificate 1 It is a standard for creating high-quality emission reductions projects in the Clean Development Mechanism CDM2 It was developed in 2003 by World Wide Fund for Nature WWF and Helio International onlySelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns D GSF Gold standard foundation certificate certificationThe Gold Standard is a standard for creating high-quality emission reductions projects in the Clean Development Mechanism CDM Joint Implementation JI and Voluntary Carbon Market It was designed to ensure that carbon credits are not only real and verifiable but that they make measurable contributions to sustainable development worldwide Its objective is to add branding a label to existing and new Carbon Credits generated by projects which can then be bought and traded by countries that have a binding legal commitment according to the Kyoto ProtocolThe Gold Standard for CDM GS CER was developed in 2003 by World Wide Fund for Nature WWF SouthSouthNorth and Helio International The Voluntary Gold StandardGS VER a methodology for use within the voluntary carbon market was launched in May 2006To be eligible for Gold Standard Certification a project must:1 Be an approved Renewable Energy Supply or End use Energy Efficiency Improvement project type2 Be reducing one of the three eligible Green House Gases: Carbon Dioxide CO2 Methane CH4 and Nitrous Oxide N2O3 Not employ Official Development Assistance ODA under the condition that the credits coming out of the project are transferred to the donor country4 Not be applying for other certifications to ensure there is no double counting of credits5 Demonstrate its additionality by using the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’s UNFCCC Large Scale Additionality Tool6 and show that the project is not a ‘business-as-usual’ scenario6 Make a net-positive contribution to the economic environmental and social welfare of the local population that hosts itFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ322 Consider the following statements :1 Barail range is an eastern extension of the Himalayan Range System in north eastern India2 The Garo Khasi and Jaintia hills are part of Deccan Plateau and not part of the Purvanchal rangeSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns CBarail range :The Purvanchal Mountains or Eastern Mountains are a sub-mountain range of the Himalayas in northeast IndiaThe Purvanchal Mountains cover the states of Assam Arunachal Pradesh Manipur Tripura Nagaland Meghalaya and MizoramThe range is an eastern extension of the Himalayan Range System in north eastern India It bends sharply to the south beyond the Dihang River gorge and spreads along the eastern boundary of India with Myanmar The Purvanchal range includes the hill ranges of the Patkai Barail range Manipur Mizoram Mizodisambiguation needed and Naga HillsThe Garo Khasi and Jaintia hills are part of Deccan Plateau and not part of the Purvanchal rangeFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ321 Which among the following protocols employed the principle of differential treatment in respect to climate change 1 Washington Naval Treaty2 Cartagena Protocol3 Part IV of General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade GATTSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 123Ans ACommon but Differentiated responsibilities amp respective capabilities :Common But Differentiated Responsibilities CBDR was formalized in United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change UNFCCC of Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro 1992 It was the first international legal instrument to address climate change and the most comprehensive international attempt to address negative impacts to global environment3 CBDR principle acknowledges all states have shared obligation to address environmental destruction but denies equal responsibility of all states with regard to environmental protectionCBDR is based on relationship between industrialization and climate changeCBDR was not the first differential treatments of countries in international agreements There were other protocols agreements that employed principle of differential treatment• Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone layer Montreal Protocol• • Washington Naval Treaty• Part IV of General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade GATT 19799• principle 23 of Declaration of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment 1972FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ320 Recently a national park has been set up in the Sipahijola Wildlife Sanctuary where clouded leopards are kept in enclosures in a zoological park Where this wildlife sanctuary is located A MeghalayaB TripuraC SikkimD Arunachal PradeshAns BFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ319 Recently in the news there was a term Superbugs What is this A These are the microorganism that are essential for the vital functions of the bodyB These are the enzymes that makes bacteria resistant to broad range of beta-lactam antibioticsC These are the bacteria that causes infection which is difficult to treatD These are the super weeds that are essential in the treatment of less fertile soilsAns CNew Delhi Metallo-beta-lactamase-1 NDM-1 is an enzyme that makes bacteria resistant to a broad range of beta-lactam antibiotics These include the antibiotics of the carbapenem family which are a mainstay for the treatment of antibiotic-resistant bacterial infections The gene for NDM-1 is one member of a large gene family that encodes beta-lactamase enzymes called carbapenemases Bacteria that produce carbapenemases are often referred to in the news media as superbugs because infections caused by them are difficult to treat Such bacteria are usually susceptible only to polymyxins and tigecyclineThe most common bacteria that make this enzyme are gram-negative such as Escherichia coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae but the gene for NDM-1 can spread from one strain of bacteria to another by horizontal gene transferFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ318 With reference to the ancient Pandu caves consider the following statements:1 These caves depicts the characters of the Pandavas of the Mahabharata epic2 They are a significant group of Indian rock-cut architecture representing the Hinayana tradition 3 These are a group of 22 caves carved between the 1st century BCE and the 3nd century CESelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D Only 3Ans BPandav Caves:Pandu Caves or Trirashmi Leni Leni being a Marathi word for caves are a group of 24 caves carved between the 1st century BCE and the 3nd century CE though additional sculptures were added up to about the 6th century reflecting changes in Buddhist devotional practicesThey are a significant group of early examples of Indian rock-cut architecture initially representing the so-called Hinayana tradition Most of the caves are viharas except for Cave 18 which is a chaitya of the 1st century BCEThe location of the caves is a holy Buddhist site and is located about 8 km south of the center of Nashik or Nasik Maharashtra IndiaTheir name has nothing to do with the characters Pandavas characters in the Mahabharata epicFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA : FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ317 For which among the following purpose National Water Resource Council has been constituted A It is an international thin tank established in 1996 to promote awareness build political commitment and trigger action on critical water issues at all levelsB To advise the Prime Minister on expenditure of the Australian Government Water Fund between 2004 and 2010C To resolve the water disputes that would arise in the use control and distribution of an interstate riverD It is a non-profit organization that drives economic technology and talent development to support the global water industryAns BNational Water Resource CouncilDissolved 25 November 2014Jurisdiction Commonwealth of AustraliaHeadquarters Turner Australian Capital Territory Motto Australia’s independent voice on national water issuesEmployees 48The key function that the Commission provided was to advise the Prime Minister on expenditure of the Australian Government Water Fund between 2004 and 2010 FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA :FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ316 Who among the following are the members of the Western Pacific Naval Symposium 1 India2 China3 Malaysia4 Australia5 JapanSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 245B 1345C 2345D All are correctAns CThe Western Pacific Naval Symposium are a series of biennial meetings of the Pacific nations to discuss naval matters held on even numbered years A WPNS workshop is held on odd numbered years in between the symposiumsMember countries as of 2010: Australia Brunei Cambodia Canada Chile France Indonesia Japan Malaysia New Zealand Papua New Guinea Peoples’ Republic of China Philippines Republic of Korea Russia Singapore Thailand Tonga United States of America Vietnam Observers: Bangladesh India Mexico PeruFRAMED FROM GK TODAY MAGAZINEQ315 Who among the following is/are the members of the Boao Forum for Asia BFA 1 China2 India3 FICCI Federation of Indian Chambers of CommerceSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 3B Only 2C 2 amp 3D 1 amp 2Ans AIt is a non-profit organisation that hosts high-level forums for leaders from government business and academia in Asia and other continents to share their vision on the most pressing issues in this dynamic region and the world at large BFA is modeled after the World Economic Forum held annually in Davos SwitzerlandThe Forum is committed to promoting regional economic integration and bringing Asian countries even closer to their development goals FRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA :FROM OUR MOCK SERIES 2018 PRELIMSQ314 Terai Arc Landscape program aims to protect which among the following terrestrial flagship species 1 African elephant2 Great Horned Rhinoceros3 Asian Elephant4 Golden LionSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 1 amp 2B 234C Only 2 amp 3D 124Ans CTerai Arc Landscape Program:The program aims to protect three of the five terrestrial flagship species the tiger the Asian elephant and the great one-horned rhinoceros by restoring corridors of forest to link 13 protected areas of Nepal and India to enable wildlife migrationFROM IES 2018 PRELIMSQ313 What is crowdfunding A Money collected for public welfare projects by levying an entry fee to exhibitions shows etcB Money collected by charitable organisations by placing a donation box at a prominent locationsC Money raised by innovators amp inventors by launching their products amp services through the internetD Money raised by individuals by passing the hat around to onlookers at a street performanceAns CCrowdfunding is the practice of funding a project or venture by raising many small amounts of money from a large number of people typically via the Internet1 Crowdfunding is a form of crowdsourcing and of alternative finance In 2015 it was estimated that worldwide over US34 billion was raised this waythe term crowdfunding refers to Internet-mediated registries This modern crowdfunding model is generally based on three types of actors: the project initiator who proposes the idea and/or project to be funded individuals or groups who support the idea and a moderating organization the platform that brings the parties together to launch the idea Crowdfunding has been used to fund a wide range of for-profit entrepreneurial ventures such as artistic and creative projects medical expenses travel or community-oriented social entrepreneurship projectsWar bonds are theoretically a form of crowdfunding military conflictsThe Crowdfunding Centre’s May 2014 report identified two primary types of crowdfunding:1 Rewards crowdfunding: entrepreneurs presell a product or service to launch a business concept without incurring debt or sacrificing equity/shares2 Equity crowdfunding: the backer receives shares of a company usually in its early stages in exchange for the money pledgedFROM IES 2018 PRELIMSQ312 The meaning of carbon footprint is described by the amount of :A Carbon dioxide released into the atmosphere as a result of the activities of a particular individual organization or communityB Greenhouse gases emitted by industries contributing to global warmingC Carbon emissions released by the burning of jet fuelD Increase in the carbon content of the atmosphere due to the felling of treesAns AA carbon footprint is historically defined as the total set of greenhouse gas emissions caused by an individual event organisation or product expressed as carbon dioxide equivalentA measure of the total amount of carbon dioxide CO2 and methane CH4 emissions of a defined population system or activity considering all relevant sources sinks and storage within the spatial and temporal boundary of the population system or activity of interest Calculated as carbon dioxide equivalent using the relevant 100-year global warming potentialGWP100Carbon footprint is one of a family of footprint indicators which also includes water footprint and land footprint• 4Indirect carbon emissions: the carbon footprints of productso 41Foodo 42Textileso 43Materialso 44Cement• 5Schemes to reduce carbon emissions: Kyoto Protocol carbon offsetting and certificatesCarbon dioxide emissions into the atmosphere and the emissions of other GHGs are often associated with the burning of fossil fuels like natural gas crude oil and coal The Kyoto Protocol defines legally binding targets and timetables for cutting the GHG emissions of industrialized countries that ratified the Kyoto Protocol Accordingly from an economic or market perspective one has to distinguish between a mandatory market and a voluntary market Typical for both markets is the trade with emission certificates:• Certified Emission Reduction CER• Emission Reduction Unit ERU• Verified Emission Reduction VERlocal emissions reduction schemes have no status under the Kyoto Protocol itself they play a prominent role in creating the demand for CERs and ERUs stimulating Emissions Trading and setting a market price for emissionsFROM IES 2018 PRELIMSQ311 Non-performing Assets decline in value when 1 Demand revives in the economy 2 capacity utilization increases3 Capacity utilization through substantive is yet optimal4 Capacity utilization decreases consequent upon merger of unitsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 134B 124C 123D 1234Ans CA Non-performing asset NPA is defined as a credit facility in respect of which the interest and/or installment of principal has remained ‘past due’ for a specified period of time In simple terms an asset is tagged as non performing when it ceases to generate income for the lenderA Non-performing asset NPA is defined as a credit facility in respect of which the interest and/or installment of Bond finance principal has remained ‘past due’ for a specified period of time NPA is used by financial institutions that refer to loans that are in jeopardy of default the so called NPL Once the borrower has failed to make interest or principal payments for 90 days the loan is considered to be a non-performing asset Non-performing assets are problematic for financial institutions since they depend on interest payments for income Troublesome pressure from the economy can lead to a sharp increase in NPLs and often results in massive write-downsAccordingly with effect from March 31 2004 a non-performing asset NPAis a loan or an advance where• Interest and/or installment of principal remain overdue for a period of more than 91 days in respect of a term loan• The account remains ‘out of order’ for a period of more than 90 days in respect of an Overdraft/Cash Credit OD/CC• The bill remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days in the case of bills purchased and discounted• Interest and/or installment of principal remains overdue for two harvest seasons but for a period not exceeding two half years in the case of an advance granted for agricultural purposes and• Any amount to be received remains overdue for a period of more than 90 days in respect of other accounts• Non submission of Stock Statements for 3 Continuous Quarters in case of Cash Credit Facility• No active transactions in the account Cash Credit/Over Draft/EPC/PCFC for more than 91daysFROM IES 2018 PRELIMSQ310 Which of the following concepts are relatable to income of members of the public while considering public welfare 1 Sensitivity of demand2 Elasticity of demand3 Sensitive of expenditure 4 Elasticity of expenditureA 1 amp 2B 2 amp 3C 3 amp 4D 1 amp 4Ans BFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIAQ309 Consider the following statements :1 Foods containing carotene Vitamin A or cooking oils are safe to be cooked in a microwave2 Thermocol plates are poor barrier to oxygen and water vapor and has a relatively high melting pointSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A Only 1B Only 2C Both are correctD Both are incorrectAns DThermocol plates:-It is a synthetic aromatic polymer made from the monomer styrene Polystyrene can be solid or foamed General-purpose polystyrene is clear hard and rather brittle It is an inexpensive resin per unit weight 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Bastar Iron Craft : Chhatisgarh2 Screw Pine handicraft : Odisha3 Pipili Aplique Work : KeralaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below :A 2 amp 3B Only 2C 1 amp 3D Only 1Ans DBastar Iron Craft : ChhatisgarhScrew Pine handicraft : KeralaPipili Aplique Work : OdishaFROM CAPFQ304 Which of the following was/were not related to the Buddha’s life 1 Kanthaka2 Alara Kalama3 Channa4 Goshala MaskariputraWhich among the above statements is/are correct A Only 1B Only 4C 1 amp 2D 3 amp 4AnsBFROM CAPFQ303 With reference to the Wavell plan consider the following provisions :1 Under this plan India was granted dominion status2 Indians would themselves draft the constitution3 Position of secretary of state amp viceroy would remain the same4 Viceroy would retain the power of vetoWhich among the above statements is/are correct A 134B 234C Only 1 amp 4D 1234Ans DThese proposals were not to be applied to the Indian statesFRAMED FROM WIKIPEDIA Q302 Which among the following is/are the examples 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Jeremy Corbyn a man who is most surely in tune with the aims of the Fabian Society has just managed to introduce those Horrible Germans into his chat in favour of Brexit by comparing the Jews who having declared a war against Germany wanted to get themselves well out-of-the-way before British bombs started to rain down with the Syrian refugees whom are as a result of more British supplied bombs raining down are now fleeing Syria During the tribute to Jo Cox a speaker in the British Parliament actually used the occasion to claim it to be Russian bombs from which the Syrians were fleeing |
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Another feat of the Indian Scientists is India’s unexpected launch of an anti-satellite missile which sparked surprise and some alarm among international and aerospace-industry experts The test’s success makes India the fourth country capable of destroying an enemy satellite after the US Russia and China In an operation called ‘Mission Shakti’ the Defence Research amp Development Organisation demonstrated India’s ability in offensive defence capability Now if I talk about Dr G Satheesh Reddy Secretary Department of Defence RampD and Chairman DRDO he graduated in Electronics and Communication Engineering from JNTU Anantapur and received his MS amp PhD from JNTU Hyderabad He joined Defence Research and Development Laboratory DRDL Hyderabad in the year 1986 and subsequently joined Research Centre Imarat RCI the brain child of Dr Kalam after its formation From a young navigation scientist and System Manager he rose steadily and after his multiple significant appointments and decades of sustained contributions to Defence RampD was elevated as Distinguished Scientist in Sep 2014 and was appointed as Scientific Adviser to Defence Minister in May 2015 So even the Chairman of DRDO doesn’t hail from IIT as the other noteworthy scientists mentioned above The only reason I mentioned the accomplishment of the non-IITians here is just to throw light on the fact that if you are focused and determined you can write your own destiny Of course IITs have contributed a lot in the field of education but we should not forget the other institutions which are producing youth equally capable of creating history |
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The final part of the boxing training by Russian-American Boxing Trainer Michael ‘COACH MIKE’ Kozlowski |
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Invece il mondo che conta Cina Russia India Brasile etc dell’ideologia liberal non ne vogliono sapere |
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The WW2 Russian Prisoner of War Holocaust |
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Russia is making its own “pivot to Asia” after the recent Ukraine kerfuffle as highlighted by the May meeting between Russian President Vladimir Putin and Chinese President Xi Jinping in Shanghai culminating in a 30-year energy agreement This apparent Sino-Russian “rapprochement” —complete with a joint naval exercise— reversed a frigid relationship arising from the 1960 Sino-Soviet split only marginally improved in the 1990’s of tense distance between Beijing and Moscow |
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I want to go back but only with Travel All Russia |
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Features of Russian Tents with wood stove: |
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Russian Art Tour |
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Startling photos of everyday life in Russia |
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NYUSHA – GDE TY TAM YA RUSSIAN POP |
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Aiuti umanitari da Russia Cuba e Cina al Venezuela: Trump non… |
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Russia Today RT en Espanol |
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How Russia Sowed Confusion Over Its Responsibility for Destroying Flight MH17 |
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